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Exam Code: 3300
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura® Contact Center Administration Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 61 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-13

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NO.1 A customer with Avaya Contract Center in SIP environment would like to add voice processing
commands to an application.
Which block would be required?
A. IVR
B. Treatment
C. Output
D. Input
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which statement regarding scripts is true?
A. A secondary script is the only place treatments can be applied to the call.
B. A primary script is referenced directly from the Master script, otherwise It Is a secondary script.
C. A primary script is the only place that call variables can be assigned.
D. Secondary and primary scripts are exactly the same.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer with Avaya Aura Contact Center will use the Contact Router for all calls entering the system.
What is one function of the Contact Router?
A. It links agents to applications.
B. It links skillsets to applications.
C. It links Intrlnslcs to applications.
D. It links Control Directory Numbers (CDN) to applications.
Answer: D

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NO.4 How many seconds are recommended that a script should wait after queuing a contact to a skillset?
A. WAIT 1
B. WAIT 2
C. WAIT 4
D. WAIT 8
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer with Avaya Aura Contact Center has written a script application. The Problem View Is
showing a syntax error with the following area of script: IF DAY OF WEEK EQUALS MONDAY..FRIDAY
THEN
What is the correct syntax required for this application?
A. IF DAYS OF WEEK EQUALS MONDAY..FRIDAY THEN
B. IF DAY OF WEEK EQUAI S MON..FRI THEN
C. IF DAY OF WEEK - MONDAY FRIDAY THEN
D. IF DAY OF WEEK = MONDAY..FRIDAY THEN
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer with Avaya Aura Contact Center has created a loop in a script application with the following
parameters:
1. While the caller is in the loop, the customer wants an announcement to play every thirty seconds, and
the queued status of the call and the In-service status of the skillset must be evaluated
2. If the call is not queued, and if the skillset is out of service, the call will be sent to an out of service
announcement

NO.7 A supervisor with Avaya Aura Contact Center would like to create a custom Application Display The
data fields available are cumulative, fixed, and instantaneous. What is an example of a cumulative data
field?
A. Application Name
B. Average Answered Delay
C. Calls Waiting
D. Service Level Threshold
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer with Avaya Aura Contact Center wants to see in a report the percentage of calls being
answered in the automotive skillset in 20 seconds or less.
What would need to be programmed to obtain this data?
A. Create an application threshold class, set the Level 1 %Servlce_Level_S Threshold to 20, the Level
2 %Servlce_Level_S threshold to 30, and assign the threshold class to the automotive ski 11 set.
B. Create a skillset threshold class, set the Level 1 %Service_Level_S Threshold lo 10, the Level 2%
Service_Level_S Threshold to 20 and assign the threshold class to the automotive skillset.
C. Create an application threshold class, set the Level 1 Service Level Threshold to 20, and assign the
threshold class to the automotive skillset.
D. Create a skillset threshold class, set the Level 1 Service Level Threshold to 20, and assign the
threshold class to the automotive skillset.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which two commands can update the value of a call variable? (Choose two.)
A. GIVE
B. READVAR
C. ASSIGN TO
D. COLLECT DIGITS
E. SEND REQUEST
Answer: CD

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NO.10 If the call is not queued and the skillset is in service. It must be re-queued.
What is the proper script syntax to accomplish this requirement.?
A. Section wait_loop
IF NOT QUEUED THEN
IF OUT OF SERVICE SKILLSET automotive THEN
GIVE RAN out_of_service_ran_gv
DISCONNECT
END IF
END IF
GIVE RAN agts_stlll_busy_ran_gv
WAIT 30
EXECTUTE wait_loop
B. Section wait_loop
IF NOT QUEUED THEN
IF NOT OUT OF SERVICE automotive THEN
QUEUE TO SKILLSET automotive
WAIT 2
ELSE
GIVE RAN out_of_service_ran_gv
DISCONNECT
END IF E
ND IF
GIVE RAN agts_still_bu5y_ran_gv
WAIT 30
EXECTUTE wait_loop
C. Section wait_loop
IF QUEUED AND
IF OUT OF SERVICE automotive THEN
GIVE RAN out_of_service_ran_gv
DISCONNECT
END IF
END IF
GIVE RAN agts_still_busy_ran_gv
WAIT 30
EXECTUTE wait_loop
D. Section wait_loop
IF NOT QUEUED AND
IF NOT OUT OF SERVICE SKILLSET automotive THEN
GIVE RAN out_of_service_ran_gv
DISCONNECT END IF
END IF
GIVE RAN agts_still_ran_gv
WAIT 30
EXECUE walt_loop
Answer: B

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3.A customer is using the intrinsic Call Rate in & script. For what Information is the system looking when
the Call Rate Intrinsic is used?
A. the number of contacts that entered the system in the last 10 minutes
B. the total number of active calls in the system
C. the number of calls that entered the system in the last 10 minutes
D. the number of calls answered in the preceding 10 minutes
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 3001
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya IP Office Configuration and Maintenance Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 84 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-13

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NO.1 Which two are power options for IP telephones on the IP Office? (Choose two.)
A. Class "B" 24 Volt power supply
B. Class "A" 24 Volt power supply
C. Power over Ethernet switch conforming to 802.3af standards
D. 1151D1 individual Power Supply and the 115D2 Individual Power Supply with Buttery Backup
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 A customer is installing an IP500v2 with one hundred 1600 series IP Phones. The customer has an
existing Juniper VPN gateway for their remote workers and would like to provide hard telephones for their
remote workers to login at home.
What is needed to accomplish this?
A. modified 46xxsettings.scr file
B. VPN gateway for each remote worker
C. 1616 IP Phone with VPN software
D. modified 46vpnsettings.txt file
Answer: B

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NO.3 After an IP Office upgrade, the customer reports that "Please Wait" continuously appears on the 5420
DS telephone.
What will resolve the problem?
A. Start the IP Office Manager application.
B. The 5420 DS is corrupted and must be replaced.
C. If IP Office does not restart correctly. Power-off and power-on IP Office and the problem will be
corrected.
D. The CCR lost connection to IP Office. Wait until the LED on the CCR status turns green again and the
telephone will start to work.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which application will allow a system administrator to see historical inbound and outbound traffic
information on a trunk in the IP Office?
A. Advanced Summary Reporter
B. CallDetail Reporter
C. System Status Application
D. Historical Reporting Application
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which application can be used in conjunction with one-X Portal to provide full softphone and call
handling capability for users?
A. IP Office Voice Portal
B. IP office Video Softphone
C. IP Office Phone Manager Pro
D. IP Office Softconsole
Answer: B

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NO.6 From which application are log files required for escalating issues to Avaya support?
A. Manager Report
B. Customer Call Status
C. System Monitor
D. SMDR
Answer: C

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NO.7 .What is the format for an ARS short rode to dial a telephone number on a SIP line with Trunk ID 20?
A. Number: N;
Telephone Number: N ± @ s i pp r pv i de r. co
Feature: Dial Line Group 20
B. Number: N
Telephone Number: N @sipprpvider.com
Feature: Dial
Line Group 20
C. Number: N;
Telephone Number: Nsi7204441000
Feature: Dial
Line Group 20
D. Number: N;
Telephone Number: N sipprpvider
Feature: Dial
Line Group 20
Answer: A

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NO.8 Calls into the IP500 are not ringing to the expected user.
Which statement correctly describes how the Call routing is validated?
A. Use the System Status Application (SSA) to see what user the call is ringing to.
B. Use Customer Call Status (CCS) to see what user the call is ringing to.
C. Capture a System Monitor trace and escalate to Avaya for an answer.
D. Wait until the system Is Idle and place test calls so you can hear which telephone is ringing.
Answer: A

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NO.9 A customer has an IP500v2 and would like the ability to monitor the IP Office system resources from
anywhere in the network. Which two will allow thorn to do this? (Choose two.)
A. System Status Application
B. Telnet session to the IP Office
C. Web session to the IP Office address
D. SSH session to the IP Office address
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 A customer has UMS enabled on their VoiceMail Pro server. They wish to use Microsoft Outlook to
retrieve voicemail messages and are not using Microsoft Exchange as the message store.
Which protocol must be configured in Microsoft Outlook to access their messages?
A. POP3
B. IMAP
C. HTTP
D. MAPI
Answer: B

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NO.11 On the IP Office SIP line, the customer has marked the Network Topology to "None". The IP Office
STUN program is run on IP Office LAN1 and the results show "Symmetric Firewall" on LAN2.
How would IP Office route SIP calls?
A. SIP Calls will be routed by the IP Office NAT table.
B. SIP Calls will be routed by the IP Office routing table.
C. SIP calls will be routed on LAN 1 because "Symmetric Firewall" provides "Security".
D. SIP calls will be routed on I AN 2 because "Open Internet" is a direct connection to the Internet.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which license will enable VoiceMail Pro database interactions?
A. Basic Edition
B. Essential Edition
C. Preferred Edition
D. Advanced Edition
Answer: D

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NO.13 The Alarm Set action in Voicemail Pro allows an alarm call to be set up and played to a specified
extension at a specified time. The telephone will display "Alarm" and the prompt that will play is. "This is
an alarm call please hang up".
Which description is true?
A. The telephone display message cannot be changed.
The prompt can be changed by telephone but cannot use a .wav file.
B. The telephone display message cannot be changed.
The prompt cannot be changed.
C. The telephone display message can be changed.
The prompt can be changed by telephone but cannot use a .wav file.
D. The telephone display message can be changed.
The prompt can be changed by telephone or can use a .wav file.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Where can additional IP Office Service User logins be setup?
A. the IP Office Softphone Application
B. the IP Office System Monitor Application
C. the IP Office Manager Network Configuration
D. the IP Office Manager Security Settings
Answer: D

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NO.15 When testing an implementation, users are attempting to dial out of the system (outbound tall) and they
receive the message Unobtainable
on the display of their telephones, and the tall fails.
What is the cause of the problem.?
A. The user rights are not defined.
B. The upgrade license is not valid in the IP Office.
C. The lines on the system are out of service.
D. The users have not been assigned a direct dial code.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 6002-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura(TM) Communication Manager and CM Messaging (R6.0) Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-13

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Exam Code: 6202-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura(TM) Contact Center Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-13

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NO.1 In a SIP based Avaya Aura Contact Center, the Contact Center Manager Server
(CCMS) supports
secure Transport Layer Security (TLS) communication When implementing Security
Certificate
management for TLS in the CCMS, what is the first step that must be accomplished?
A. Create the Certificate Store in the CCMS
B. Apply the Signed Certificate to the CCMS
C. Create a Certificate Signing Request (CSR) file from the CMS
D. Apply the Certificate Authority (CA) Root Certificate to the CCMS
Answer: D

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NO.2 You have completed the stand-alone installation of Contact Center Manager
Administration (CCMA)
software on a fully prepared Platform Vendor Independent (PVI) server The CCMA cannot
establish a
connection to the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) What is one of the first steps to
troubleshoot
the problem.?
A. Reinstall CCMA
B. Ensure that the correct sys-admin password is being used
C. Change the IP multicast sending address on the CCMS server
D. Ensure that the CCMS and CCMA servers have been added to a domain
Answer: B

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NO.3 A company is planning to implement a stand-alone Contact Center Manager Server
(CCMS) license
with 50 Voice Agents Which license type should the company purchase?
A. Essential
B. Nodal NCC
C. Nodal Enterprise
D. Corporate Enterprise
Answer: A

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NO.4 You are installing a standalone Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) The
Application will be
installed on a Windows Server 2008 operating system. As a part of the Windows Server 2008
operating
system preparation the IPv6 option needs to be removed What is one way to disable IPv6
functionality?
A. IPv6 is disabled by default on Windows Server 2008 operating system
B. Perform a NET USE IPV6 DISABLE within a command window
C. Under Control Panel, go to System and Security and remove IPv6 addressing
D. Right chick on the Local Area Connection Adaptor and select Properties, then clear the
IPv6 check box
Answer: D

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NO.5 You are installing Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) on a standalone
server. Which
statement regarding passwords associated with CCMA running on a Windows Server 2008
operating
system is true?
A. The iceAdmin user account can be deleted during the CCMA installation
B. The iceAdmin user account password must be established during installation of CCMA
C. If the iceAdmin password is changed, CCMA cannot be logged on to either as webadmin
of any other
user
D. If the default webadmin password is changed, CCMA cannot be logged on to either as
iceAdmin or as
any other user
Answer: B

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NO.6 You are preparing a Windows 2008 Server for Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS)
and Server
Utility installation Which operation on the server can the Server Utility perform?
A. Perform event preferences
B. Perform database restores
C. Administer Contact Center Agent login credentials
D. Modify Real-Time Display interface parameters
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which pre-installation preparations must be completed on a Platform Vendor
Independent (PVI) server
before installing Avaya Aura Contact Center server applications?
A. Enable IPV6 . Ensure SNMP is disabled. Enable NetBIOS. The ELAN card must be first in
the binding
order
B. Enable IPV6. Ensure SNMP is enabled. Enable NetBIOS. The Contact Center Subnet
(CLAN) card
must the first in the binding order
C. Disable IPV6. Ensure SNMP is enabled. Disable NetBIOS. The Contact Center Subnet
(CLAN) card
must be first in the binding order
D. Disable IPV6. Ensure SNMP is enabled .Disable NetBIOS .The ELAN card must be first in
the binding
order
Answer: C

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NO.8 After completing the in installation of the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS), you
want to display
the installation log. What is the path to this log?
A. D:\Avaya\Logs\PV|
B. C:\Logs\CCMS
C. C:\Avaya\Logs\Sysops
D. D:\Log\CMS
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which operating system features should be enabled in Windows Server 2008 operating
system before
you install Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA)?
A. Windows Server Backup for running CCMA Server Backups and Internet Information
Services (IIS)
B. TFTP Client to Backup of the CCMA configuration files to remote TFTP Server and XPS
Viewer to view
reports on the server
C. Storage Manager for SAN s for managing the remote backups and IIS
D. IIS and XPS Viewer to view reports on the server
Answer: A

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NO.10 In an Avaya Aura Contact Center, what does enabling Open do?
A. It permits agents to utilize the Avaya OpenQueue Desktop for agent skills that have
agents logged in
with the correct training and knowledge sets to handle calls
B. It allows third parties including Contact Center MultiMedia (CCMM) to create, read, and
delete
multimedia and voice contacts in Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS)
C. It gives agents and Call Center supervisors the ability to manage multiple simultaneous
contact types
such as voice, outbound voice, email, chat, IM and voicemail
D. It provides extended call queuring functionality for the Avaya Aura Contact Center by
implementing
the same functionality as the Automatic Call Distribution Queue including useful features like
visualization
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 6006-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura(TM) Communication Manager (R5.2.1) Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-13

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NO.1 The Avaya G450 Media Gateway can be configured to function as a DHCP (Dynamic
Host
Configuration Protocol) client DHCP client enable the G450 to receive an IP address from a
DHCP server,
according to the DHCP client-server protocol. As an option, the G-450 DHCP client can also
request to
receive which three types of IP-related information? (Choose three.)
A. a list all H 248 Media Gateways in the system
B. a Domain Name
C. a list of default routers
D. a list of all registered IP Phones
E. a list of available DNS servers
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.2 A customer users S8510 server with a Media Gateway he necessary components or
adding additional
DCP phones to the system, including a new G650. Which three tasks need to be performed
while
installing the additional requirement? (Choose three.)
A. Cable the two G650 carriers with a TDMLAN Bus Extender cable
B. Se the proper carrier address ID for the second G650 carrier
C. Add additional 2GB of RAM to the SB5 10 server.
D. Remove the right ITMLAN bus terminator from the bottom GB50 carrier and install the bus
terminator
at the left end of the TDWLAN bus on the G650 carrier directly above.
E. The new digital line card must be installed in slot 2 of the new G650.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 Before IPSI cards can become active on a new Communication Manager system,
which screen must be
accessed to enable IPSI control of the Port Networks?
A. system-parameters ip-options
B. system-parameters ipsi-option
C. system-parameters port-networks
D. system-parameters ipserver-interface
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer asks that the current subnet mask assigned to a remote Avaya G450
Media Gateway
Primary Management interface (PM) be verified. Which two commands identity the
information requested?
(Choose two.)
A. show ip-info
B. show running-config
C. show interface vlan (vlan #)
D. show configuration media-gateway
E. show system
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 A Customer has 1200 IP phones in their solution and they are looking for redundancy
and load
balancing How many CLAN s are recommended for their IP phone registration and signaling?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.6 At a new deployment the customer has a total of 2,000 subscribers at their main
location. They do not
need redundancy in their solution Which Media ServerMedia Gateway combination should be
used for
this deployment.?
A. S8800 Simplex with G450
B. S8800D with G450
C. S8300D with G430
D. S8800 Duplex with G650
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two statements about the installing and cabling of the Media Gateway G650 are
true?(Choose
two.)
A. Mount the A carrier at the bother of the rack
B. Mount the A carnet in the uppermost position in the rack
C. In a multiple Media Gateway GB50 configuration, the G650s an be allocated in different
racks if long
TDMLAN cables are used to interconnect the 850s.
D. In a multiple Media Gateway G650 configuration put the G65s in the rack with no vertical
pace between
them.
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 Which three settings need to be configured on a Layer 2 device? (Choose three.)
A. RIP
B. port speed
C. IP address
D. default gateway
F. routing interface
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.9 What are two ways of obtaining the RFA Module ID (MID) and System ID (SID)?
(Choose two.)
A. From the CM Linux prompt issue the command statuslicense-V .
B. From the CM SAT issue the command list configuration software-versions .
C. From the CM Linux prompt issue the command systat .
D. From the CM SAT issue the command display system-parameters customer-options .
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 A technician is testing calls from IP phones at a remote location operating on a
G450VLSP gateway to
main location served by S83XXG450 over the WLAN Busy tones are received when multiple
calls
between the two locations are already active. Two network regions and G711 and G729
codec server has
been set up Which two steps must be taken to ensure the branch IP phones are using he
minimum WAN
bandwidth when calling main location stations?
(Choose two.)
A. Assign branch IP Phones to the G450 LSP as its call server in ip-network-region 2 form.
B. Assign G.729 as primary codec in the Station Form for the branch IP phones.
C. Use the ip-network-map form to assign the branch IP phones to network region2.
D. Create a third Codec Set and assign to the G450 Gateway in ip-network-region 2 form.
E. Verify calls between NRI and NR2 use G.729 Codec in ip-network-region 1 form.
Answer: CE

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Exam Code: 3102
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura Session Manager and System Manager Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-13

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NO.1 Review the output of the command shown in the exhibit.
Which command is used to generate these results and what does it tell you?
A. swversion displays the Session ManagerReleaseinformation.
B. statapp displays the current status of the Session Manager services.
C. initDRS displays the Session ManagerNoderegistration and data replication.
D. traceSM displays a ladder trace of the SIP requests going in and out of the Session Manager.
E. smconfig displays the network information and status the Session Manager.
Answer: E

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NO.2 When performing a remote backup of system Manager data the administrator is asked for a
user
name and password. Which statement best explains why a user name and password are
required?
A. The backed-up data file is encrypted. The username and password are used in encryption
process and subsequently to access the file on restoring backed up data.
B. The backed-up data is stored on a remote server using SCP. The user name and password are
used to login remote server.
C. Because System Manager Date is being exported from the server for security and
authentication purpose system Manager once again checks the administrator's credentials.
D. All System Manager Data is backed up to common storage repository setup during installation.
For system Manager to access the repository the correct user name and password must be
supplied.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which three types of handles can be selected for a user when creating users in system
manger?
(Choose three.)
A. SMTP
B. H.323
C. IBM
D. XMPP
E. Undefined
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.4 During a post-installation check of System Manager and Session Manager you discover that
the
Session lager replica node is stuck at "Synchronizing". You run the initTM command in Session
Manager but the replication status does not change.
Which step will be effective in resolving the problem?
A. Reset the enrollment password.
B. Run traceSM to monitor the synchronization events and restart the Security Module.
C. Delete the Session Manager Replica node in System Manager, verify the enrollment password
is valid In System Manager and run the initTM command again in Session Manager.
D. Verify the enrollment password is valid in System Manager and run the initTM command again
in Session Manager.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which statement is true with regard to SIP Monitoring being enabled on a SIP Entity?
A. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
B. SIP Entity will monitor the status of Session Manager by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
C. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP SUBSCRIBE requests.
D. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP NOTIFY requests.
E. System Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A new Application Sequence has already been defined in the network. A technician has been
asked to apply Application Sequence to all incoming calls for all employees in the Berlin office.
Which sequence describes the steps that should be taken?
A. Go to the User Management page and use the filter option to list only the users in the Berlin
office-Select each user from the filtered list and edit each user's User Profile. Apply the new
Application Sequence to the Terminating Application Sequence for each user.
B. Navigate to the Communication Profile Editor and use the filter option to list only the users in
the Berlin location. Select All. Select the new Application Sequence from the Terminating
Application Sequence drop down box.
C. Go to the list of Application Sequences and edit the new Application Sequence, adding the
Berlin location to the list of associated locations.
D. Edit the Berlin Location to include the new Application Sequence as its Terminating Application
Sequence.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Digit Conversion in Adaptation can be specified to modify "origination" type headers.
Which three are origination / source type URIs? (Choose three.)
A. Request-URI
B. P-Asserted-Identity
C. Refer-To (in REFER messages)
D. History-info (calling portion)
E. Contact (in 3xx response)
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.8 After a power failure or database crash, the Postgres database may become corrupted and
the
Postgres server may not restart.
The recovery action is to clear the writer-Ahead Log (WAL) and optionally reset other control data,
using which command?
A. pg_resetxlog
B. pg_clearwal
C. pg_dump
D. service postgresq1 restart
E. service wall restart
Answer: A

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NO.9 Company XYZ has a multi-location voice network. They have Session Manager at their main
site
and Avaya Communication Manager (CM) and Cisco Call Manager at their branch locations.
Which type of messages does Session Manager send to the Avaya and Cisco PBX configured as SIP
Entities to monitor their status?
A. ENTITY
B. LINK
C. OPTIONS
D. STATUS
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which URL should be used to access the web console to install a System Manager template?
A. https://135.0.0.5/webconsole
B. https://135.0.0.6/webconsole
C. https://135.0.0.7/SMGR
D. https://135.0.0.7/webconsole
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 3103
Exam Name: Avaya (Radvision Scopia Solution for Video Communications Exam)
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Total Q&A: 42 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-13

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NO.1 What is the maximum High Definition (HD) resolution supported by the Elite MCU?
A. 480P
B. 720P
C. 1080i
D. 1080P
Answer: D

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NO.2 How can you limit the default call bandwidth for a specific user in a deployment that includes
the
iVIEW Management Suite?
A. Limitingthe bandwidth can be done only through the end-points.
B. The default call bandwidth can belimited as part ofthe terminal configuration set.
C. After the call is connected, limit the bandwidth through the meeting controlscreen.
D. Limitingthe bandwidth cannot be done for a specific user.
Answer: C

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NO.3 In which slot can you insert the Master Blade in the Scopia® Elite 5000 series 3U chassis?
A. the bottomslot
B. any slot except the top slot
C. any slot
D. only thetop slot
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which activity cannot be performed by an MCU operator?
A. MCU configuration
B. Managing another conference
C. Viewing the conference list
D. Disconnecting a conference
Answer: B

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NO.5 What connectivity method(s) are available for H.323 clients to dial-in into the PathFinder
server?
A. PathFinder Client and H.460 support only.
B. Either PathFinder Client and H.460, or PathFinder Client and H.323 DirectPublicAccesssupport.
C. PathFinderClient,H.460 support, and H.323 Direct Public Access support.
D. PathFinderClient only.
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the maximum High Definition (HD) resolution supported by SCOPIA XT Desktop?
A. 448P
B. 720P
C. 1080i
D. 1080P
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 132-S-916
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Specialist - IP Office Implement and Support Elective Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 135 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-09

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NO.1 .Which file validates the version of software that is to be loaded into the 4600 Series Telephone
set?
A. bbla0_83.scr
B. 46xxsettings.txt
C. 46xxsettings.scr
D. 46xxupgrade.scr
Answer: D

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NO.2 .An IP Office solution is sold to a customer who needs to connect two existing sites over their LAN.
Which two are required by Avaya to ensure the VoIP connection and calls work properly? (Choose
two.)
A. Firewall / filter
B. Network assessment
C. A separate voice network
D. Static addresses for the IP Office
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 .You have an Avaya IP 412 Office with the largest supported voice compression modules (VCMs)
on the system. What is the maximum number of data channels supported on this system?
A. 20
B. 50
C. 80
D. 100
Answer: D

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NO.4 .A customer using an IP Office system with a single PRI line is reporting difficulties when dialing
out. What are two reasons for this happening? (Choose two.)
A. There are not sufficient channels available for the number of callers on the system.
B. The PRI clock quality is set to Network instead of Fallback.
C. The PRI clock quality is set to Fallback instead of Network.
D. The internal CSU is enabled.
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 .A customer reports that IP Office users cannot access voicemail at certain times. Avaya has
requested that the customer reproduce the issue and provide traces. Which three steps can the
customer take to reproduce the reported issue? (Choose three.)
A. The customer can place test calls into voicemail.
B. The customer can use the 'IP Office System Monitor" andVoiceMail Pro debug logs to record
system activity.
C. The customer can use System Monitor to "Call Sync" on all calls in the system.
D. The customer can reboot the IP Office to see if it resolves the issue.
E. The customer can record the date and time of the reported issue.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.6 .What is necessary to upgrade the firmware for the 4600/5600 series sets on an IP Office system?
A. Manager
B. Serial cable
C. Third-party FTP server
D. Null modem cable
Answer: A

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NO.7 .Which Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) options are available in the IP Office?
A. Disabled, Enabled
B. Server, Enabled, Client
C. Server, Disabled, Client,DialIn
D. Server, Client, Disabled
Answer: C

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NO.8 When installing IP Hardphones, the engineer wants to use the IEEE 802.3af standard to _
____.
A. Supply AC voltage to the IP Office
B. Supply power to the IPHardphones
C. Perform Layer 3 routing for IPHardphones
D. Filter multicast traffic to the appropriate IPHardphone
Answer: B

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NO.9 .An IP Office application will allow an individual to select protocols and interfaces that are to be
traced and decoded. The trace can either be captured directly to screen or as a log file for later
analysis. Traces from different protocols can be color coded to improve the clarity of large log files.
Which application is used for this?
A. Debug View
B. System Monitor
C. Delta Server
D. System Status Application
Answer: B

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NO.10 .When configuring Session Initiated Protocol (SIP) trunks with SIP authorization using an IP
address on an IP Office system which option must be set in the SIP Line configuration form for the
trunks to function correctly?
A. The customer's NAT IP address must be entered on the SIP line form.
B. The Primary Authentication Name must be set.
C. The compression mode must be set to automatic.
D. The ITSP IP address must be entered on the SIP line form.
Answer: D

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NO.11 .Which two operating systems are supported by VoiceMail Pro? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft Windows 2000
B. Microsoft Windows XP
C. Microsoft Windows 98 SE
D. Microsoft Windows NT
Answer: A,B

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what would the default gateway for IP Office 1 be?
A. 10.10.1.1
B. 10.10.1.2
C. 192.168.10.100
D. 135.122.34.90
Answer: D

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NO.13 .Which three pieces of information does System Status Application provide? (Choose three.)
A. Configuration errors
B. Local IP Office license status
C. Trunk status
D. Extension status
E. Remote IP Office licensestatu
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.14 A customer wants a quick way of putting callers through to the mailbox for hunt group 245
SalesAdmin. They want to be able to put the caller on hold and just dial 123. Which Short Code
should be used to accomplish this?
A. Telephone Number "SalesAdmin"
Feature VoiceMailCollect
B. Telephone Number "#SalesAdmin"
Feature VoiceMailCollect
C. Telephone Number 245
Feature VoiceMailCollect
D. Telephone Number "SalesAdmin"
Feature VoiceMailDrop
Answer: B

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NO.15 .Your customer has an IP Office 412 system running version 4.2 where calls at times ring to wrong
extension numbers. Which three steps would you take to reproduce or validate the issue?
(Choose three.)
A. Use System Status Application to watch the call progress to verify which extension the call is
ringing to and why.
B. Use System Monitor and the Call / Packet information to follow the call progress to identify the
issue.
C. Use the telephone's display for the extension that is incorrectly ringing to determine how the
call was routed.
D. Use the Call Status application to watch the call progress to verify how the call is being routed
and to what extension it is being directed to.
E. Use the IP Office Manager application to verify that theVoiceMail call flow is configured
correctly.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.16 .When using SIP or H.323 trunks and the System Status Application, which three problems can be
tested using the System Status Application? (Choose three.)
A. Round trip delay
B. Receive jitter
C. Receive packet loss
D. Quality of Service (QoS) value
E. DSCPQoS value
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.17 .A customer wants to have a simple conference bridge with four permanent bridges set up off of a
menu in VoiceMail Pro. The customer also wants each bridge protected with a different static PIN.
Where in the setup of this scenario would you enter the PIN?
A. On the General tab in the menu action
B. On the General tab for each transfer action
C. On the Telephone Number field in the IP Office Short Code
D. In the Properties box for each option in the Touch Tone tab in the menu action
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which three options does the IMS user have available in Microsoft?Outlook? (Choose three.)
A. Select IMS server.
B. Select Voicemail Box.
C. Select Voicemail server.
D. Select handset for VM playback.
E. Prompt before connecting to server.
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.19 Recordings take up how much space on a hard drive?
A. 2MB per minute
B. 200KB per minute
C. 1MB per minute
D. 650KB per minute
Answer: C

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NO.20 .An IP Office telephone user reports that a phone is not ringing for outside calls. What are three
possible reasons why this is happening? (Choose three.)
A. The IP Office locale is set to "A-Law".
B. The phone does not have the user profile logged onto the phone.
C. The ring volume is too low to hear.
D. The phone has been set to "Offhook Station".
E. The phone is set to "Do Not Disturb".
Answer: B,C,E

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Exam Code: 6202.1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura(TM) Contact Center Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-09

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NO.1 You are installing Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) on a standalone server. Which
statement regarding passwords associated with CCMA running on a Windows Server 2008 operating
system is true?
A. The iceAdmin user account can be deleted during the CCMA installation
B. The iceAdmin user account password must be established during installation of CCMA
C. If the iceAdmin password is changed, CCMA cannot be logged on to either as webadmin of any other
user
D. If the default webadmin password is changed, CCMA cannot be logged on to either as iceAdmin or as
any other user
Answer: B

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NO.2 A company is planning to implement a stand-alone Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) license
with 50 Voice Agents Which license type should the company purchase?
A. Essential
B. Nodal NCC
C. Nodal Enterprise
D. Corporate Enterprise
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which pre-installation preparations must be completed on a Platform Vendor Independent (PVI) server
before installing Avaya Aura Contact Center server applications?
A. Enable IPV6 . Ensure SNMP is disabled. Enable NetBIOS. The ELAN card must be first in the binding
order
B. Enable IPV6. Ensure SNMP is enabled. Enable NetBIOS. The Contact Center Subnet (CLAN) card
must the first in the binding order
C. Disable IPV6. Ensure SNMP is enabled. Disable NetBIOS. The Contact Center Subnet (CLAN) card
must be first in the binding order
D. Disable IPV6. Ensure SNMP is enabled .Disable NetBIOS .The ELAN card must be first in the binding
order
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which operating system features should be enabled in Windows Server 2008 operating system before
you install Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA)?
A. Windows Server Backup for running CCMA Server Backups and Internet Information Services (IIS)
B. TFTP Client to Backup of the CCMA configuration files to remote TFTP Server and XPS Viewer to view
reports on the server
C. Storage Manager for SAN s for managing the remote backups and IIS
D. IIS and XPS Viewer to view reports on the server
Answer: A

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NO.5 In an Avaya Aura Contact Center, what does enabling Open do?
A. It permits agents to utilize the Avaya OpenQueue Desktop for agent skills that have agents logged in
with the correct training and knowledge sets to handle calls
B. It allows third parties including Contact Center MultiMedia (CCMM) to create, read, and delete
multimedia and voice contacts in Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS)
C. It gives agents and Call Center supervisors the ability to manage multiple simultaneous contact types
such as voice, outbound voice, email, chat, IM and voicemail
D. It provides extended call queuring functionality for the Avaya Aura Contact Center by implementing
the same functionality as the Automatic Call Distribution Queue including useful features like visualization
Answer: B

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NO.6 You have completed the stand-alone installation of Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA)
software on a fully prepared Platform Vendor Independent (PVI) server The CCMA cannot establish a
connection to the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) What is one of the first steps to troubleshoot
the problem.?
A. Reinstall CCMA
B. Ensure that the correct sys-admin password is being used
C. Change the IP multicast sending address on the CCMS server
D. Ensure that the CCMS and CCMA servers have been added to a domain
Answer: B

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NO.7 You are installing a standalone Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) The Application will be
installed on a Windows Server 2008 operating system. As a part of the Windows Server 2008 operating
system preparation the IPv6 option needs to be removed What is one way to disable IPv6 functionality?
A. IPv6 is disabled by default on Windows Server 2008 operating system
B. Perform a NET USE IPV6 DISABLE within a command window
C. Under Control Panel, go to System and Security and remove IPv6 addressing
D. Right chick on the Local Area Connection Adaptor and select Properties, then clear the IPv6 check box
Answer: D

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NO.8 You are preparing a Windows 2008 Server for Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) and Server
Utility installation Which operation on the server can the Server Utility perform?
A. Perform event preferences
B. Perform database restores
C. Administer Contact Center Agent login credentials
D. Modify Real-Time Display interface parameters
Answer: A

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NO.9 In a SIP based Avaya Aura Contact Center, the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) supports
secure Transport Layer Security (TLS) communication When implementing Security Certificate
management for TLS in the CCMS, what is the first step that must be accomplished?
A. Create the Certificate Store in the CCMS
B. Apply the Signed Certificate to the CCMS
C. Create a Certificate Signing Request (CSR) file from the CMS
D. Apply the Certificate Authority (CA) Root Certificate to the CCMS
Answer: D

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NO.10 After completing the in installation of the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS), you want to display
the installation log. What is the path to this log?
A. D:\Avaya\Logs\PV|
B. C:\Logs\CCMS
C. C:\Avaya\Logs\Sysops
D. D:\Log\CMS
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 7004.1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Communication Server 1000 for Avaya Aura® Maintenance Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-09

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
Consider a company ¯ s d i a li ng p l an sho w n i n t he exh i b it and an exa m p l e f o r it s r equ ir e m en t s :
A station user at the company, with Location Code 221, placed an ESN call, dialing 7-221-2581. This
would be an On-Net call and the NARS programming must remove the LOC code and dial the DN
internally.
What programming would remove the location code for a call dialed within the originating Communication
Server 1000 to a DN on that same Communication Server 1000?
A. Each site would have its own Location Code programmed as a Home Location Code(HLOC) under
Translation Table #1 in their CS 1000.
B. The location codes for each site would be programmed under the LOC programming in Translation
Table #2 at all locations.
C. Home NPA Codes (HNPA) for each site would be programmed under Translation Table #1 at each
location in their CS 1000.
D. Each site would have the Location Codesfor all sites programmed as Home Location Codes (HLOC) in
Translation Table #1 of their CS 1000.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer has a Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system at their site. You have been asked to
add the Call Pickup feature to the ten IP telephones in the sales department. The customer wants to be
sure active calls are not lost when the change are made.
Which Phones Configuration feature can be enabled allowed you to ensure changes to the telephones
are not transmitted to the call server until the telephone is not busy?
A. Bulk change
B. Courtesy change
C. Group change
D. Template change
Answer: B

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the customer Route List index shown in the exhibit, what is the first expensive route that a
call placed on that RLI could take?
A. Entry 0
B. Entry 1
C. Entry 2
D. Entry 3
Answer: C

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the customer ¯ s p r og r a mm ed da t abase sho w n i n t he exh i b it and AC 1 = 9 , ove r w h i ch R L I w ill a ca ll
placed to 9-1-912-534-2222 complete?
A. RLI 9
B. RLI 4
C. RLI 3
D. RLI 2
E. call will not complete as dialed
Answer: B

Avaya   7004.1   7004.1

NO.5 An administrator is programming an NRS for the first time on a new Communication Server 1000
system RIS. 7.0 system. When attempting to add the Service Domain, it cannot be added as the Add
button is grayed out in the NRS.
Which tasked should you perform to resolve this issue?
A. reinstall the Signaling Server Software
B. reinstall the NRS software
C. switch from Standby database to Active database
D. switch from Active database to Standby database
Answer: D

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has asked if the Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system can route anyone that dial an
unassigned number in the customer ¯ s D I D r ange t o t he A tt endan t.
In reviewing the current configuration as shown in the exhibit, what do you conclude?
(Choose two)
A. only internalstation users are routing to the Attendant
B. internal station users and non tie line users are routing to the Attendant
C. all caller types are receiving an overflow tone
D. NET_DATA Attendant and tie trunk users are receiving an overflow tone
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer has deployed a Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system at their site. Their sales
department is expanding and you have been asked to add Ave new telephones with the same capabilities
as the existing telephones in the department.
Which programming command should you use to complete this task.?
A. Move to DN
B. Move from TN
C. Copy from DN
D. Copy from TN
Answer: D

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the SDRR programming options shown in the exhibit, which SDRR programming would allow a
user to dial 1-900-867-3333, but not successfully dial any other 1-900 based number?
A. Table 1
B. Table 2
C. Table 3
D. Table 4
Answer: A

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NO.9 For a situation where you use the CDP feature at a switch equipped with the MARS software package,
which statement are correct? (Choose two)
A. Use steering codes tor CDP calls that are the same as the assignedNARS Access Cades.
B. Use steering codes tor CDP calls that aredistinct from thoseassigned NARS Access Cades.
C. You can integrate CDP numbers with the NARS Uniform Dialing Plan (UDP).
D. Youcannot shareRoute Lists,Digit Manipulation tables and Time-of-Day schedule withNARS.
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 The Satellite Link Control feature ensures that the configuration of a call does not include more than one
communications satellite trunk. Tandem trunk calls, when connected through more than one
communication satellite trunk, are subject to transmission distortion due to propagation.
Which parameters are required to be equipped or configured for Satellite Link Control in the
Communication Server 1000?
A. Network Signaling (NSIG) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN3 signaling.
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
B. Route must be configured with STD or ETN signaling.
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
C. Network Transfer (NXFR) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN2 or ESN3 signaling
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
D. Network Signaling (NSIG) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN3 or ESN5 signaling.
Route must be programmed with a Traveling Class of Service (TCOS)
Answer: A

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