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Exam Code: 250-270
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec NetBackup 7.0 for Unix)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 237 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 A company has just expanded the Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment by adding an additional
media server.
What is the fastest way to update several hundred Symantec NetBackup clients with the new media
server information?
A. run the update_all_clients script
B. run the add_media_server_on_clients script
C. specify the new media server in the Backup, Archive, and Restore interface
D. specify the new media server in the client properties
Answer: B

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NO.2 Catalog configuration can be configured to email which file to aid in catalog recovery?
A. BMR file
B. master server config file
C. support script output
D. DR file
Answer: D

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NO.3 An administrator has created three BasicDisk storage units within the NetBackup Administration
Console (STU-A, STU-B, and STU-C). The administrator needs to create a backup policy that evenly
rotates use of each of these storage units during backup.
How can the policies or storage units be set up to accomplish this?
A. set up each of the policies to use "Any Available" storage unit
B. set up a storage unit group for these STUs and select "Failover" option for storage unit selection
C. set up a storage unit group for these STUs and select "Least recently selected storage unit" option
D. set up a storage unit group for these STUs and select "Choose storage units based on order specified
above" option
Answer: C

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NO.4 How long will a failed restore job remain in an Incomplete state prior to being moved to a Done state?
A. one day
B. three days
C. seven days
D. until the administrator cancels the restore job
Answer: C

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NO.5 Where are exclude list configurations stored?
A. media server
B. master server
C. client
D. Enterprise Media Manager (EMM) server
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two media status designations are excluded in the count against maximum number of partially
full media? (Select two.)
A. Frozen
B. Imported
C. Active
D. Available
E. Inactive
Answer: AB

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NO.7 A collection of all backup data from a client is assembled into a single stream and written to tape or
disk.
What is this called?
A. file metadata
B. backup policy
C. catalog .f file
D. backup image
Answer: D

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NO.8 A tape library had the robot firmware upgraded and now the robot is reading the barcodes with
additional characters.
What can be set so that Symantec NetBackup 7.0 uses the same characters as before the firmware
upgrade occurred?
A. Media ID generation
B. Media ID display
C. media type mapping
D. barcode rules
Answer: A

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NO.9 A Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment uses a multi-tiered architecture.
Which system functions as the top tier?
A. media server
B. enterprise client
C. client
D. master server
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which two items are required to use the Catalog Recovery Wizard? (Select two.)
A. BMR file
B. media used for the catalog backup
C. catalog backup policy
D. DR file
E. critical policy list
Answer: BD

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NO.11 Which two types of information are displayed in the Tape Summary report? (Select two.)
A. the number of tapes that are suspended
B. the number of tapes that are offsite
C. the number of tapes that are using compression
D. the number of tapes that are active
E. the number of tapes each client is using
Answer: AD

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NO.12 An administrator successfully creates a disk pool for Symantec NetBackup 7.0, then attempts to
create a new storage unit using the bpstuadd command. In the bpstuadd command, the storage unit
name is specified as diskpool1_storageunit-#01. An error message is returned indicating the storage unit
name is invalid.
How should the storage unit name be modified to fix the problem?
A. remove the "-" from the name
B. remove all the numbers from the name
C. remove the "#" from the name
D. shorten the name to fewer than twenty characters
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which two statements are true about the function of the Initiate Import utility in Symantec Netbackup
7.0? (Select two.)
A. Phase I creates a list of expired images.
B. Phase II lists and creates image files from tape or disk.
C. Phase I reads and creates image files in the image database.
D. Phase I requires each tape to be mounted if tape media is used.
E. Phase II imports the backups and creates fragments.
Answer: AD

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NO.14 In a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment, where does the image database reside?
A. within the EMM database
B. on the media server
C. on the master server
D. within the master server's Sybase database
Answer: C

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NO.15 An organization has Symantec NetBackup 7.0 client machines with a large number of files distributed
across multiple file systems that are being backed up to a library with high-speed tape drives.
Which two steps should the administrator take to ensure the greatest number of backup streams are
active concurrently? (Select two.)
A. select the "Enable multiple data streams" policy attribute and edit the "Maximum jobs per client" master
server host property
B. create a "Media Server Load Balancing" type storage unit group to enable additional backup streams to
become active simultaneously
C. enable the client-side deduplication feature so that only unique data is sent from the client to the media
server
D. select the Enable multiplexing attribute within the storage unit and the policy schedule
E. configure the "Max drives this master" attribute to the number of tape drives that are available within
the library
Answer: AD

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NO.16 Which two databases are used by Symantec NetBackup 7.0? (Select two.)
A. Media
B. Image
C. Volume
D. EMM
E. Device
Answer: BD

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NO.17 An administrator is remotely logged into a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 server via the terminal window
and needs to configure robots and drives.
Which command should be used to complete the configuration?
A. vmconf
B. tpreq
C. nbdevconfig
D. tpconfig
Answer: D

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NO.18 A restore must be performed. The administrator is trying to view the valid images for a client, but the
following error occurs:
WARNING: Server does not contain any valid images.
Which two may be incorrectly configured? (Select two.)
A. schedule type for restores
B. destination client for restores
C. server to use for backups and restores
D. media server for backups and restores
E. policy types for restore
Answer: CE

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NO.19 Which Symantec NetBackup 7.0 volume pool is created by default?
A. Data
B. Scratch
C. None
D. Catalog
Answer: C

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NO.20 The configuration parameters MIN_GB_SIZE_PER_DUPLICATION_JOB and
IMAGE_EXTENDED_RETRY_PERIOD_IN_HOURS are part of the configuration for which feature?
A. Catalog Replication
B. FlashBackup
C. Storage Lifecycle Policy
D. NetBackup Vault
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ST0-086
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010(STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 127 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What is the first required step tor managing computers from Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery
2010 Management Solution?
A. create resource targets
B. define backup policies
C. install the Alans Agent
D. discover computers on the network
Answer: D

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NO.2 When installing the Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Agent on Windows Server 2008,
which two services are automatically installed on the host computer? (Select two.)
A. Symantec Alert service
B. Symantec SymSnap VSS Provider service
C. Symantec pcAnywhere Host service
D. SymSnapService service
E. Symantec FiashSnap service
Answer: B, D

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NO.3 Which two options must be installed to migrate managed client computers from Symantec Backup
Exec System Recovery Manager 85 (BESR) to Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
Management Solution? (Select two.)
A. Altiris Agent
B. BESR plug-in
C. Symantec Installation Manager
D. Symantec ThreatCon
E. BESR Management Console
Answer: A, B

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NO.4 Which backup method is available with Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Linux Edition?
A. independent recovery point backup
B. recovery point set backup
C. incremental backup
D. file and folder backup
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which type of backup task for Linux is supported oy Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
Management Solution?
A. offsite copy
B. recovery point set
C. file and folder backup
D. independent recovery point
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which tool is used in Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 to control permissions?
A. Permission Configuration tool
B. Rote-Dased Administration tool
C. Security Configuration tool
D. User Access Control tool
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the minimum amount of memory required to run Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery
2010 for Linux17
A. 256 MB
B. 384 MB
C. 512MB
D. 1 GB
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which configuration feature of Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 allows the recovery of
a remote machine by removing the requirement for external boot media?
A. Restore Anyware
B. LightsOut Restore
C. Cold Image Restore
D. Symantec pcAnywhere
Answer: B

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NO.9 An administrator needs to configure the Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Event log
logging level for only the most critical problems.
Which two steps are required to accomplish this? (Select two).
A. set the type of messages to High Priority Messages
B. set the type of messages to All Messages
C. set the type of messages to Medium and High Priority Messages
D. check the Errors check Dox
E. check the Errors and warnings check Dox
F. check me Errors, warnings, and informational check Dox
Answer: A, D

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NO.10 An administrator has an internal drive that is only used for temporary storage. Which option must De
configured to disable status reporting for this drive?
A. Error Only status reporting
B. Configure status reporting
C. No status reporting
D. Full status reporting
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which functionality found in Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Windows Edition is also
available in Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Linux Edition?
A. converting an image file to a virtual hard disk
B. creating a backup every month on a specified day
C. managing backups using a local graphical console
D. restoring an entire computer to the same hardware
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which two options are available to configure FTP offsite copy? (Select two)
A. Failover to alternate site
B. secure FTP
C. Limit connection attempts to
D. Connection mode
E. Limit number of copies
Answer: C, D

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NO.13 Which option must be installed prior to installing Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
Management Solution?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Symantec Installation Manager
C. Symantec Backup Exec Infrastructure Manager
D. Symantec LiveUpdate
Answer: B

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NO.14 Using the Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Management Solution, an administrator can
define which two types or backup policies? (Select two)
A. Backup Point Set
B. File and Folder Policy
C. Recovery Point Set
D. Independent Backup Point
E. Independent Recovery Point
Answer: C, E

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NO.15 Which two options will activate the Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 (BESR) evaluation
period? (Select two.)
A. beginning the BESR installation program
B. running a dnve-based or file and folder backup
C. booting a system from the System Recovery Disk (SRD)
D. defining a drive-based or file and folder backup
E. completing the BESR Installation program
Answer: B, D

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NO.16 In an organization, users are commonly working on their computers while Backups are occurring.
To improve application performance for users, how is Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
tuned tor user performance to take priority over backups?
A. adjust Default Performance
B. suspend backups while the system is active
C. change Connection Mode
D. enable the Computer Responsiveness setting
Answer: A

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NO.17 What is me minimum memory that LightsOut Restore requires to run?
A. 512MB
B. 768 MB
C. 1 GB
D. 2 GB
Answer: C

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NO.18 A computer is currently managed by Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery Manager 8.5. The
administrator needs to manage that computer using Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
Management Solution.
Which component will be removed during migration?
A. Altihs plug-in
B. Altihs Agent
C. Management Console
D. Management Control
Answer: D

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NO.19 An administrator needs to create a new destination for the backup of a server with Symantec Backup
Exec System Recovery 2010 (BESR) Management Solution.
Which server requires access to the location?
A. the client server
B. the BESR Management Solution database server
C. the BESR Management Solution server
D. the UveUpdate server
Answer: A

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NO.20 Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 (BESR) Is installed on a windows Server 2003 it Is then
used to deploy agents to five remote computers running windows Server 2003. and nve computers
running windows 7 Enterprise.
Regardless of the edition. how many total BESR licenses are required to license all machines in the
environment?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 6
D. 10
E. 11
Answer: E

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NO.1 An administrator receives a call from a customer stating that all the backup jobs that were scheduled to
run the previous night did not run.Which NetBackup process should the administrator look into to
troubleshoot the problem?
A.nbpem
B.nbemm
C.bpdbjobs
D.bpdbm
Answer: A

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NO.2 A restore is initiated for a client in which part of the admin console?
A.Backup, Archive, and Restore
B.Activity Monitor
C.Backup Policy Administration
D.Device Monitor
Answer: A

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NO.3 How is a backup executed manually from the NetBackup Admin Console?
A.right-click on the client in the Host Properties screen and click on Backup
B.set the schedule to execute at 00:00:00 in the backup policy
C.right-click on the client's backup policy and select "manual backup" then select the client name
D.right-click on any line in the Activity Monitor and select "manual backup", then enter the client name
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the catalog disaster recovery file that is created during the online catalog backup intended for?
A.record keeping purposes
B.identification of media required for a recovery
C.identification of the clients that were backed up over a specified time period
D.automation of the process of NetBackup recovery
Answer: D

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NO.5 What allows administrators to freeze or unfreeze media?
A.Device Monitor > Media
B.Storage Unit Properties
C.Media and Device Management > Media
D.Media and Device Management > Tape
Answer: C

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NO.6 Where is the best location to find binary sizes to help determine if an administrator's NetBackup
environment has sufficient disk space allocated for an upgrade to safely and efficiently back up and
restore all of their data?
A.Symantec NetBackup Administrators Guide
B.Symantec NetBackup Troubleshooting Guide
C.Symantec NetBackup Upgrade Release Notes
D.Symantec NetBackup Operations Guide
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which one of the following is a tape drive cleaning method within NetBackup
A.frequency-based cleaning
B.on-demand cleaning with drive-alert
C.manual cleaning with a tape cleaning solution
D.scheduled cleaning
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which command is most commonly used to troubleshoot and test the connectivity between a
master/media server and a client?
A.bpconnect
B.bpclient
C.bpclntcmd
D.bpdbm
Answer: C

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NO.9 A customer is experiencing long backup times.An administrator is given the task of evaluating the data
transfer path.What are the components that make up the data transfer path?
A.the NetBackup client, the client memory, the NetBackup server, and the storage device
B.the network, the NetBackup server, and the storage device
C.the NetBackup client, the network, the NetBackup server, and the storage device
D.the NetBackup server, the network, the network switch, and the storage device
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the originator ID for nbpem process, which is used in unified logging?
A.115
B.116
C.117
D.118
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which NetBackup command line utility is used to verify communication between NetBackup and a
robotic tape library?
A.vmoprcmd
B.robtest
C.sgscan
D.libtest
Answer: B

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NO.12 Where can the NetBackup release updates be found?
A.http://www.symantec.com/netbackup/updates/overview.jsp?pid=15143
B.http://www.symantec.com/business/support/overview.jsp?pid=15143
C.http://www.symantec.com/business/software/overview.jsp?pid=15143
D.http://www.symantec.com/netbackup/support/overview.jsp?pid=15143
Answer: B

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NO.13 The maximum data buffer size is calculated as a multiple of operating system (OS) pages (1 page =
4KB).The maximum OS pages is 256 (0 to 255).What is the maximum size limit for data buffers on
Windows?
A.64KB
B.1024KB
C.256KB
D.512KB
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is the command syntax to immediately expire images on a particular tape (tapeid)?
A.bpexpdate -expire 1 -id <tapeid>
B.bpexpdate -m <tapeid> -d 0
C.bpexpdate -id <tapeid> -d 0
D.bpexpdate -m <tapeid> -d 1
Answer: B

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NO.15 An administrator has a NetBackup environment with four LTO3 tape drives and 20 clients.The
master/media server is on a 1 Gb connection, but the clients only have 100 Mb connections.Which two
settings can be used to improve the backup performance? (Select two.)
A.enable multistreaming for all policies and increase the aximum jobs per client to a bigger value
B.enable hardware compression on the tape drives
C.enable multiplexing at the STU level and set it to a higher value
D.enable Client Encryption Option on the network clients
E.exclude large clients from daily backups
Answer: A, C

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NO.16 Which NetBackup process transfers the full data stream from the client to the media server when using
deduplication?
A.bpdm
B.bptm
C.bpbkar
D.bpdp
Answer: C

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NO.17 An administrator is configuring multi-streaming for a few backup policies.The administrator is backing
up four volumes configured on two physical disks from a NetBackup client.How many backup streams
should be configured for best backup performance?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

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NO.18 How do administrators disable the TapeAlert feature in UNIX for NetBackup?
A.check the disable_tape_alert box in the device manager
B.create a touch file at /usr/openv/volmgr/database/NO_TAPEALERT
C.create a touch file at /usr/openv/netbackup/NO_TAPEALERT
D.add an entry (disable_tapealert) in the bp.conf
Answer: B

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NO.19 NetBackup (NBU) master, media, and client servers may be run in mixed environments.Windows 2000
(Win2K) is not supported in NBU 7.0.How can Windows 2000 Servers be protected in a supported
configuration?
A.Win2K with a 6.x client may be backed up with an NBU 7.0 media server.
B.Win2K with a 7.x client may be backed up with an NBU 6.5.4 media server.
C.Win2K with a 5.x client may be backed up with an NBU 7.0 media server.
D.Win2K with a 6.x client may be backed up with an NBU 5.x media server.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which two should be verified prior to installing NetBackup? (Select two.)
A.mount all CIFS file systems to the server
B.apply the most current operating system patches and updates to the server
C.remove all storage devices from the server
D.remove any other vendor's backup software currently configured on the system
E.un-mount all the NFS file systems from the server
Answer: B, D

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Exam Code: ASC-094
Exam Name: Symantec (ASC Storage Management Assessment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 77 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 A customer has Veritas Volume Replication (VVR) version 5.1 with the following Rlink attributes:
synchronous=override bandwidth_limit=30 mbps Which statement is true?
A. If VVR is unable to maintain synchronous replication within the defined bandwidth limits, then the
bandwidth_limit attribute will be overridden to try and maintain a synchronous copy of the data at the
secondary site.
B. If VVR is unable to maintain synchronous replication within the defined bandwidth limits, it will
automatically fall-back to asynchronous mode to enable replication within the defined bandwidth limits.
C. VVR will throttle the write operations on the primary server in order to replicate the data
synchronously to the secondary site within the bandwidth limits. In the event of a network failure VVR will
fallback to asynchronous replication mode and the write operations on the primary server will no longer be
throttled, but the bandwidth for replicating to the secondary site will still be limited.
D. The bandwidth_limit attribute does not apply to synchronous replication, however in the event that the
rLink falls back to asynchronous mode the data will then be replicated within the defined bandwidth limits.
Answer: C

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NO.2 You have been asked to review a customer's VVR configuration, and found that the Rlink has the
following attributes: srlprot=override bandwidth_limit=30 mbps What is the risk to the customer's
application if the SRL overflows?
A. Application writes will be stalled which may cause the front-end application to fail or hang.
B. The bandwidth_limit will be increased so the SRL can drain, and this may overload the network and
cause application performance problems.
C. The size of the SRL will be increased, leaving less space if the application volumes need to be
extended.
D. VVR will start to use the DCM, which requires a replay of the DCM, during which, Write Order Fidelity
for the application data is lost.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which two capabilities of Symantec Common Product Installer (CPI) are not supported by the
web-based installer for Storage Foundation 5.1? (Select two.)
A. installing Storage Foundation
B. uninstalling Storage Foundation
C. upgrading Storage Foundation
D. configuring Storage Foundation for Oracle RAC (SFRAC)
E. adding license keys for Storage Foundation
Answer: C, D

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NO.4 A customer has a Veritas Volume Replicator (VVR) configuration with srlprot attribute set to autodcm. In
the event that the SRL overflows, what will happen?
A. VVR will delay any further writes to the primary node until the SRL has drained below the
low-watermark threshold
B. VVR tracks new writes in the DCM while it drains the SRL. Once the SRL is empty, VVR then
automatically replicates writes tracked by the DCM.
C. VVR tracks new writes in the DCM while it drains the SRL. Once the SRL is empty, VVR stops and the
DCM must be replayed manually.
D. VVR stops replicating and writes in the SRL are converted into DCM logging. The DCM must then be
replayed manually.
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer has two identical servers that support an OLTP database and billing application, respectively.
Each night they run a batch job to create a full Volume Manager snapshot of their OLTP database, which
is then imported and mounted on the other server to support the billing application. The customer has
asked an administrator to upgrade the version of Storage Foundation on the OLTP server to version 5.1.
Which action should be taken when performing this upgrade?
A. Upgrade the Storage Foundation binaries, diskgroups, and filesystems on the OLTP server and advise
the customer to upgrade their billing system to the same version of Storage Foundation software.
B. Inform the customer that they must upgrade the OLTP and Billing servers at the same time.
C. Modify the Storage Foundation configuration to use space-saving snapshots instead of full snapshots.
D. Only upgrade the Storage Foundation binaries on the OLTP server, do not upgrade the diskgroup and
filesystem versions until after the Billing server has been upgraded.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer has a Veritas Volume Replicator (VVR) configuration with the srlprot attribute set to override.
If there is an SRL overflow while the RLINK is connected, what happens to the running application issuing
writes.?
A. Application continues, and VVR overflows the SRL.
B. Application is blocked until SRL drains 5% or 20 megabytes, whichever is smaller.
C. Application is blocked until the RLINK is automatically detached after AutoDetach seconds have
elapsed.
D. Application continues, and VVR is automatically converted to DCM logging.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What are the limitations when upgrading CVM and CFS to version 5.1?
A. All systems within a CVM/CFS configuration must have the same versions of software; rolling upgrades
with mixed versions of software are only supported from 5.1 onwards.
B. All systems within a CVM/CFS configuration must have the latest MP for the current version prior to the
upgrade to 5.1.
C. Rolling upgrades can only be performed from version 5.0 to 5.1; rolling upgrades from 4.1 are not
supported
D. Rolling upgrades can only be performed if the diskgroup and filesystem versions remain unchanged
until all of the systems have been upgraded to the same version of software
Answer: A

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NO.8 In which order must the tasks be performed to initially synchronize VVR replication using
checkpoints? .
Start replication using vradmin -c checkpoint startrep . Run "vxrvg -c checkpoint
checkstart" . Run "vxrvg checkend" . Perform a block-level backup at the primary . Restore raw backup at
the secondary
A. 1, 4, 5, 3, 2
B. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
C. 2, 4, 3, 5, 1
D. 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
Answer: C

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NO.9 Why is it important to upgrade Storage Foundation diskgroups and filesystem versions after upgrading
the version of software on a system?
A. Storage Foundation will be unable to access the files residing on diskgroups and filesystems that have
an older version than the binaries.
B. Older diskgroup and filesystem versions are only supported during a rolling upgrade.
C. Upgrading the diskgroup and filesystem versions will enable the full capabilities of the product to be
deployed.
D. It eliminates warnings being sent to the console due to the out-of-date diskgroup and filesystem
versions.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which two components should ordinarily be configured within a Relicated Volume Group (RVG)?
(Select two.)
A. SRL
B. RDS
C. DCM
D. Diskgroup
E. Rlink
Answer: A, C

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Exam Code: ST0-119
Exam Name: Symantec (Altiris (TM) Client Management Suite 7.1 Technical Assessmen)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 101 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which two operating systems can be managed using pcAnywhere? (Select two.)
A. Linux
B. iOS
C. Android
D. Mac E.Unix
Answer: AD

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NO.2 When reviewing compliance reports for the Microsoft products, the system administrator notices that
the data and bulletins have remained unchanged for two weeks. What should the administrator check to
address this issue?
A. Revise Software Update task
B. Import Patch Data for Microsoft policy
C. Patch Management Import task
D. Microsoft Compliance Update policy
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1 solution denies the usage of applications on the network?
A. Software Management Solution
B. Application Metering Solution
C. Application Management Solution
D. Inventory Solution
Answer: D

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NO.4 What are two Software Update Plug-in responsibilities? (Select two.)
A. gathers an inventory on all installed software and their associated service pack level
B. sends execution results of all software installed to the Notification Server
C .gathers specific inventory on supported operating systems, applications, and the associated service
pack level
D. sends execution results of applied software bulletins to the Notification Server
E. notifies users before a Managed Delivery policy executes
Answer: CD

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NO.5 A company is planning an In-Place Migration to Windows 7. They use PC Transplant to migrate the
personality. Which option will help reduce the network traffic when restoring the image.?
A. use File Preservation
B. use a higher compression
C. use unicast
D. deploy the OS without applications
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1 solution tracks the installations of an application and how
often the application is used?
A. Application Management Solution
B. Deployment Solution
C. Application Metering Solution
D. Inventory Solution
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which statement is true about the Application Metering feature of Inventory Solution?
A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.
B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on the network.
C. It gathers detailed information about application files.
D. It limits the usage of applications to purchased licenses.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which type of component is included in the Software Catalog?
A. licenses
B. hotfixes
C. updates
D. uninstalls
Answer: A

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NO.9 In which area of the Symantec Management Console can a system administrator specify which users
have access to WMI, AMT, DASH, and other management technologies?
A. Credentials Management
B. Credential Access Manager
C. Security Role Manager
D. Out-of-Band Management
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which configuration step should be completed before a computer image can be sent to a managed
computer without an existing operating system installed on its hard drive?
A. create preboot configurations
B. install an operating system on the hard drive and install the applicable agents
C. configure predefined computers
D. configure initial deployment
Answer: A

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NO.11 What must be done after a managed computer has been patched?
A. Check the Software Update Package Integrity task.
B. Run a Software Inventory task.
C. Run a Microsoft Vulnerability Analysis task.
D. Update the Agent Configuration policy.
Answer: C

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NO.12 A system administrator needs to quickly deploy Windows 7 to several new computers without
preconfigured operating systems. The administrator decides to use an existing Ghost image since the
necessary drivers have already been added to the DeployAnywhere database. The PXE Configuration is
set to respond only to known computers. How should the administrator proceed?
A. Use Ghost Solution Suite to distribute the image as the computers boot to the network.
B. Import the list of new computers into the Management Console and assign an imaging task.
C. Deploy an Automation Folder to the new computers to prepare them for imaging.
D. Configure PXE to respond to a known list of MAC addresses and deploy the images only to the new
systems.
Answer: B

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NO.13 The Software Update Policy Wizard is used to create the Patch Management policy, which is
distributed to manage computers. How can a system administrator disable unsupported operating
systems?
A. For the selected operating systems, delete the software bulletin that has been selected for installation.
B. For the selected operating systems, deselect the software bulletin that has been selected for
installation.
C. For the selected operating systems, disable the software policy.
D. For the selected operating systems, remove the software policy.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which solution is included with Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1?
A. Help Desk Solution
B. Discovery Solution
C. pcAnywhere
D. Symantec System Recovery
Answer: D

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NO.15 An inventory policy is set to run weekly at 18:00 on Wednesdays and is present on all computers.
However, a user shuts down a laptop right after the inventory starts at 18:00 and turns it on the next
morning at 08:00. When will the inventory run?
A. Thursday morning at 08:00
B. next Wednesday evening at 18:00
C. Thursday evening at 18:00
D. never
Answer: B

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Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Network Access Control 12.1 Technical Assessment )
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NO.1 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator needs a custom requirement to run a script if a file does not exist. Which modification to
the logic shown in the exhibit performs this functionality?
A. Add a nested AND/OR statement to run a script after the END IF.
B. Add a nested result to run a script after the Pass.
C. Use an OR modifier to run a script after the IF.
D. Use an ELSE statement to run a script after the THEN.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What should an administrator do to obtain additional information about Host Integrity checking for a
newly implemented Host Integrity policy?
A. Create a customized computer status report on the management server.
B. Enable the reporting of additional log events on the client systems.
C. Set verbose logging on the Host Integrity policy.
D. Enable debug logging on the enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A guest is unable to download the On-Demand client. The guest is running Windows 7 64-bit and
connecting with the Mozilla Firefox browser. The computer has 512 MB RAM and 50 MB free disk space.
What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The guest's system has insufficient disk space.
B. The guest's browser is unsupported.
C. The guest's operating system is unsupported.
D. The guest's system has insufficient RAM.
Answer: A

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NO.4 How can access be permitted to remediation services when a client fails the Host Integrity check using
a Gateway Enforcer?
A. Add the client's IP address to the Trusted External IP Address List.
B. Add the client's MAC Address to the Mac Address Bypass table.
C. Add the IP addresses of the hosts to the Trusted Internal IP Address List.
D. Add the client to the Allowed Client table on the Enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statement is true about Symantec Network Access Control compliance?
A. It ensures that endpoints, such as clients and servers, meet specific administrator-defined
requirements.
B. It ensures the management of a secure client endpoint through the creation and implementation of
group policies.
C. It provides services needed by a client to bring itself up to spec in order to gain access to network
resources.
D. It provides clients with the ability to configure and deliver content and product updates to other clients
in the same topological location.
Answer: B

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NO.6 An organization with a Gateway Enforcer behind a VPN concentrator that is performing NAT,
determines that clients are being blocked. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The client is missing from the MAC Address Bypass list.
B. The IP address of the internal interface of the VPN connector needs to be added to the Trusted
External IP Address list.
C. The Enforcer is placed in the wrong physical location on the network.
D. Static routes need to be added to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager to pass the client traffic.
Answer: B

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NO.7 In an Enforcer command line interface, which filter is used to capture communication traffic between an
Enforcer and a Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. auth
B. client
C. query
D. spm
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the default time interval for Host Integrity checks?
A. Continuous
B. 2 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 30 minutes
Answer: B

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NO.9 On a LAN Enforcer, which command shows the switch action table decisions in real time?
A. show spm
B. show auth live
C. show kernel live
D. show action live
Answer: C

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NO.10 How does Symantec Network Access Control handle location switching compared to Symantec
Endpoint Protection?
A. It uses a reverse logic structure.
B. It excludes locations.
C. It uses locations instead of groups.
D. It handles locations in the same way.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which two are explanations of why auto-location switching may be useful for Host Integrity? (Select
two.)
A. It can define different Remediation sources, based on location.
B. It can enable different Antivirus features, based on location.
C. It can choose different Firewall rule sets, based on location.
D. It can select different Host Integrity checks, based on location
E. It can enable different LiveUpdate features, based on location.
Answer: A,D

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NO.12 An organization's security policy requires Host Integrity checks to run only when the client is
connecting through a VPN concentrator whose internal interface is attached to a Gateway Enforcer.
Which setting should be configured to only check Host Integrity on these external clients, but not check
clients on the local network?
A. Apply the Host Integrity agent to the external computers only.
B. Add the IP addresses of the internal clients that need not be checked to the "Trusted Internal IP
Address Range".
C. Select "Only do Host-Integrity checking through the Gateway or DHCP Enforcer".
D. Block port UDP 39999 on the client firewalls of the internal clients, so that they cannot be challenged
by the Enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.13 How can an administrator provide computers on a quarantine VLAN with access to remediation
materials without using static routes?
A. Assign a virtual IP address to the NIC on the remediation server and add it to the quarantine VLAN.
B. Create a static route from the quarantine VLAN to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager in the
Enforcer command line interface.
C. Multi-home the remediation server and connect one NIC to a port assigned to the quarantine VLAN.
D. Put a wireless access point on the quarantine VLAN to provide wireless access to quarantined clients.
Answer: C

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NO.14 The 802.1x protocol has three major components: Supplicant, Authenticator and Authentication Server.
Which elements serve each of these components when Symantec Network Access Control is being
configured to use LAN Enforcement?
A. Supplicant: Symantec Endpoint Protection Client,
Authenticator: Symantec LAN Enforcer,
Authentication Server: Microsoft Active Directory Domain Controller
B. Supplicant: Microsoft Supplicant,
Authenticator: 802.1x Enabled Switch,
Authentication Server: Symantec LAN Enforcer
C. Supplicant: Network Access Control Client,
Authenticator: Symantec Endpoint Protection Policy Manager,
Authentication Server: Symantec LAN Enforcer
D. Supplicant: Microsoft Supplicant,
Authenticator: Microsoft Active Directory Domain Controller,
Authentication Server: Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which default port must a firewall administrator open to enable communication between an Enforcer
and the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. 1433
B. 1812
C. 8443
D. 8080
Answer: B

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NO.16 An organization has deployed Symantec Network Access Control with LAN Enforcer. Historically, all
clients were Windows based endpoints. Now, Linux endpoints that authenticate with Microsoft Active
Directory will need to be authenticated through the LAN Enforcer. Which entry needs to be added to the
Switch Profile Action table to open the port for Linux endpoints once they have been authenticated
through Active Directory user credentials?
A. Host Authentication: Pass, User Authentication: Pass, Policy Check: Pass, Action: Open Port
B. Host Authentication: Fail, User Authentication: Fail, Policy Check: Ignore, Action: Close Port
C. Host Authentication: Unavailable, User Authentication:Pass, Policy Check: Unavailable, Action: Open
Port
D. Host Authentication: Pass, User Authentication: Unavailable, Policy Check: Unavailable, Action: Close
Port
Answer: C

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NO.17 What are the correct connection settings for a serial connection?
A. Data Bits: 8; Parity: none; Stop Bits: 1
B. Data Bits: 8; Parity: odd; Stop Bits: 1
C. Data Bits: 8; Parity: even; Stop Bits: 1
D. Data Bits: 8; Parity: odd; Stop Bits: 2
Answer: D

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NO.18 A Host Integrity policy has a complex custom conditional check that has three IF THEN statements, two
of which have ELSE statements. How many ENDIF statements are required?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.19 At the Enforcer (debug)# prompt, which command enables the most detailed level of debugging?
A. level engineer
B. level verbose
C. level fine
D. level error
Answer: A

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NO.20 What will happen if a user switches to a location with a different Host Integrity policy while a Host
Integrity check is in progress?
A. The Host Integrity check will fail and the client will be denied network access.
B. The client will stop the check and the user may get a timeout if attempting to reach remediation
resources.
C. The client is permitted guest access to the quarantine network until the next scheduled Host Integrity
check.
D. The Host Integrity check always completes prior to moving between locations.
Answer: B

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NO.21 Which check can be performed using custom requirements to verify whether "a product is installed" on
a client machine?
A. check the registry keys to see if the product is installed
B. check the service snap-in to see if the product is installed
C. check the policy document to see if the product is installed
D. check the IT documentation to see if the product is installed
Answer: D

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NO.22 Refer to the exhibit.
A Symantec Network Access Control administrator is trying to implement two Gateway Enforcers in
failover mode. The administrator has implemented the two Enforcers in the network as shown in the
exhibit. After starting both Gateway Enforcers, the administrator finds that both Enforcers are in active
mode. What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The failover configuration is missing.
B. The router is blocking multicast traffic.
C. The administrator failed to configure the Enforcers in Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager.
D. The Gateway Enforcers are configured in the same Gateway Enforcer group.
Answer: B

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NO.23 When a Gateway Enforcer is being deployed, which port needs to be kept open between the clients
and the Enforcer?
A. TCP 1812
B. TCP 39999
C. UDP 39999
D. UDP 1812
Answer: C

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NO.24 Which packets are periodically sent from an Enforcer to find other Enforcers on the network?
A. Failover
B. Discover
C. ARP
D. OSPF
Answer: A

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NO.25 Which log contains IP address, connection attempt, port information, and the direction of the
connection?
A. Enforcer Client log
B. Enforcer Kernel log
C. Enforcer Traffic log
D. Enforcer Packet log
Answer: C

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NO.26 Which protocol is used to transfer packet captures from an Enforcer?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. TFTP
D. SFTP
Answer: C

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NO.27 A Helpdesk technician is examining the logs for a particular client when he notices something odd. A
Host Integrity event is listed for a client as failing a requirement, but that client machine is still able to
access the network even after having the check rerun several times. Why would the client's Host Integrity
status still pass?
A. The requirement logic is malfunctioning and the Helpdesk technician should notify the administrator to
contact the vendor.
B. It is likely to be a problem with the recording of the status. The log search must be rerun to update the
status.
C. The administrator has configured that requirement to allow the Host Integrity policy to pass even if it
fails.
D. The administrator has configured the OS to ignore Host Integrity even when it fails.
Answer: D

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NO.28 When would the Enforcer need to be reset to factory defaults?
A. to change the type of Enforcer
B. to upgrade the Enforcer
C. to purge any errors on the Enforcer
D. to purge all logs from the Enforcer
Answer: A

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NO.29 Which two databases are supported when Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager is being configured?
(Select two.)
A. Oracle Database 11g
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2005, SP2
C. Microsoft SQL Express, SP1
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2008
E. MySQL Database 5.5
Answer: B,D

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NO.30 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator has created a custom requirement to remediate an operating system patch. The custom
requirement appears to be working intermittently with clients that fail the patch installation, passing the
requirement anyway. What is the likely cause of the issue?
A. The logic is missing a Fail result.
B. The logic is missing an ELSE statement.
C. The logic has an extra Pass result.
D. The logic needs an additional IF/THEN item.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 250-352
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Storage Foundation and HA 6.0 for Windows)
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Total Q&A: 171 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which benefit specific to Campus clusters does Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for Windows offer?
A. storage live migration
B. extended attributes
C. replicated data
D. site aware allocation
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which utility is used to determine whether a network adapter maintains its connection status in a
system-defined variable?
A. getmac
B. getcomms
C. NICTest
D. ping
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which utility is used to back up the private region?
A. vxcbr
B. vxsnap
C. vxassist
D. vxdg
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two system components are verified during a pre-installation check for Veritas Storage
Foundation and High Availability Solutions 6.0 for Windows? (Select two.)
A. shared disk storage compatibility
B. total physical memory
C. aggregate CPU performance
D. Active Directory
E. available installation disk space
Answer: B,E

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NO.5 Which disk group type is required for Veritas Storage Foundation for Windows to work with a Microsoft
Failover Cluster?
A. Cluster Dynamic disk group
B. Private Dynamic disk group
C. Secondary Dynamic disk group
D. Primary Dynamic disk group
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which MountV resource attribute should be set to reduce failover time?
A. AutoFSClean
B. CheckFSAccess
C. PurgeStaleMountPoints
D. ForceUnmount
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which agent is used to configure high availability for a cluster aware application service if a specific
Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) agent is unavailable?
A. Proxy agent
B. GenericService agent
C. Process agent
D. ServiceMonitor agent
Answer: B

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NO.8 An application is under maintenance for a application update on Server2. The application administrator
wants Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) to keep the application running on Server2, but fault the service group
and resource if a resource faults. Which service group attribute can accomplish this?
A. Priority
B. Evacuate
C. Frozen
D. Load
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is the recommended number of NICs per system to configure a two node cluster?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the minimum amount of memory required to make Microsoft Hyper-V virtual machines highly
available with Veritas Storage Foundation and High Availability Solutions 6.0 for Windows?
A. 2GB
B. 3GB
C. 4GB
D. 8GB
Answer: C

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NO.11 What are two different ways to perform an upgrade for a Veritas cluster? (Select two.)
A. parallel upgrade
B. offline upgrade
C. online upgrade
D. rolling upgrade
E. tiered upgrade
Answer: A,D

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NO.12 Which process enables the renaming of an imported dynamic disk group named DGName in Veritas
Enterprise Administrator?
A. right-click on disk group object DGName, select rename Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
B. select disk group object DGName, press F2, enter new name
C. right-click on disk object DGName, select Deport Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
D. select disk group object DGName, select Import Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
Answer: A

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NO.13 What are the two site-based allocations for the site-aware allocation feature? (Select two.)
A. site-separated allocation
B. site-based allocation
C. site-specific allocation
D. site-confined allocation
E. site-campus allocation
Answer: A,D

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NO.14 What is the minimum permission required to install Veritas Storage Foundation and High Availability
Solutions 6.0 for Windows.?
A. Domain Administrator
B. Local Administrator
C. Domain Operator
D. Local User
Answer: B

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NO.15 Solutions for which application are available in the Storage Foundation - High Availability Solution
Configuration Center?
A. Microsoft Hyper-V
B. Symantec Enterprise Vault
C. Symantec NetBackup
D. VMware vSphere
Answer: B

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NO.16 An administrator is designing a cluster in a Microsoft Windows environment with three systems. Two of
the systems are on the 192.168.4.0 Class C public network. The third system is on the
192.169.0.0 Class B public network. The administrator needs to have Microsoft Windows clients access
the service groups independent of the system on which they are running. Which feature or change must
be incorporated into the design?
A. use the Lanman resource in each service group
B. change the servers so they all reside on the same subnet
C. change the servers so they all use the same subnet class
D. use the subnet resource in each service group
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which feature is used to improve initial mirror synchronization time?
A. FastResync
B. SmartSnap
C. FastSync
D. SmartMove
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which feature is available when Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) is configured in secure mode?
A. SSL to encrypt communication between cluster nodes
B. a single sign-on mechanism to connect to a cluster
C. an isolated and secure environment for running applications
D. root broker configured in a stand-alone system outside cluster
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which command is used to validate recent changes made to the cluster configuration?
A. hasys -verify
B. haconf -verify
C. hacf -verify
D. hastatus verify
Answer: C

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NO.20 What is the default load balancing setting for the Dynamic Multi-Pathing (DMP) Active/Active mode?
A. Balanced Path
B. Round-robin
C. Weighted Paths
D. Least Blocks
Answer: C

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