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Exam Code: 190-802
Exam Name: Lotus (IBM Lotus Notes 8 System Administration Update)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 128 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Directory assistance in Lotus Domino 8 enables you to specify when a secondary directory must be
used only for authentication. This provides which of the following features?
A. This blocks email from being forwarded to adjacent domains
B. This avoids NAMELookups to reduce the number of ambiguous Name dialog boxes
C. This help you validate your choice of host name for receiving authentication requests
D. This scans group member lists to ensure that each member exists in an available directory that is
configured in directory assistance
Answer: B

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NO.2 Martin has been directed to configure Sametime integration for Domino Web Access (DWA) on the
Domino 8 server. Which of the following is required in the server document for Sametime to function
correctly inside of DWA?
A. Java Servlet Manager
B. HTTP Servlet Manager
C. Domino Servlet Manager
D. Sametime Servlet Manager
Answer: C

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NO.3 The Marble Corporation has chosen to allow users the ability to initiate Eclipse updates. In which of
the following locations do they enable this ability?
A. The server document
B. The security policy document
C. The server configuration document and the client notes.ini
D. The desktop policy document and the plugin_customization.ini file
Answer: D

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NO.4 Troy, the Domino administrator, needs to update the Lotus Notes Standard 8.x users with a Lotus Notes
maintenance release and a new shelf application. Which of the following is needed to perform this
update?
A. Smart Update
B. Siteupdate.nsf
C. Site Upgrade and Lotus Links
D. Smart Upgrade and Siteupdate.nsf
Answer: D

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NO.5 You are enabling a policy for the Productivity Tools. Which of the following is NOT available to
configure in this policy?
A. The ability to open SmartSuite files
B. The ability to allow the user to run macros
C. The ability to allow the use of Productivity Tools
D. The ability to restrict attaching Productivity Tool documents
Answer: D

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NO.6 Each time David restarts the agent manager, certain agents that should run only once are running
unscheduled. Which of the following steps may he perform to alleviate the issue while still allowing the
agents to run as required?
A. Set the agents to run on server restart only
B. Remove the server name from the agent security tab
C. Set the agent manager not to start by removing it from the notes.ini server tasks line
D. Make copies of the necessary agents into a new database and move that database out of the data
directory until necessary
Answer: A

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NO.7 An organization has sent you a copy of their update site database for you to import. However, all of the
features that are embedded point to their server over HTTP. Your company will not allow the Notes client
to access that server. Which of the following describes the best solution?
A. Rebuild the application to point to an alternate update site
B. Use the Composite Applications Editor to specify your update site for feature requirements
C. Extract all of the features and site.xml in the provided site update database and import the features
back into your update site
D. Delete the features from the provided site update database and import your features into the provided
database and point users to the remote HTTP server
Answer: B

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NO.8 Denny, a Notes user, maintains a large amount of mail in his inbox. The administrator has designated
that Inbox Cleanup will occur on mail older than 14 days. Which of the following is the result of the
administrator enabling this feature?
A. All mail older than 14 days will be removed from the inbox
B. All mail older than 14 days will be deleted from the mailfile
C. All mail older than 14 days will be moved to a new folder titled "expired"
D. All mail older than 14 days will be moved to the trash folder and must be restored by the user
Answer: A

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NO.9 The user name that creates the original DB2 database must be a member of which of the following
groups?
A. SYSADM
B. MANAGERS
C. DB2ADMIN
D. ADMINISTRATORS
Answer: A

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NO.10 You want to restrict simple search to enhance server performance by preventing users from searching
databases on a server that do not have full-text search enabled. In which of the following locations is this
configured?
A. The server document
B. The server notes.ini
C. The server configuration document
D. The advanced properties of each database
Answer: D

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NO.11 The Lotus Notes 8 and integrated Sametime client may access the provisioning server through which
of the following methods?
A. SSL only
B. HTTP only
C. HTTP and NRPC
D. SSL and SSO only
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following is required on the WebSphere server for Lotus Notes users who use composite
applications that contain portlet elements?
A. A Lotus Notes 8 client
B. Server client installer
C. The user's Lotus Notes id file
D. A Domino 8 server installation
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following determines which features are available during Lotus Notes install, update, and
remove functions?
A. Site.xml
B. Smart upgrade
C. Desktop policy
D. Install manifest
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following type of permanent failure response is sent when you enable the Domino server
to reject ambiguous names through directory lookups against the primary Domino directory?
A. Mailbox unavailable
B. The recipient is unknown
C. The mail server is unavailable
D. The recipient is rejected for policy reasons
Answer: D

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NO.15 Satchel, the Domino administrator, is attempting to implement design note compression on the
resource database. He is unable, though, to see the property selection to enable this feature. Which of the
following is preventing him from seeing this selection in the database properties box?
A. He is not manager of the database
B. He has not deferred index creation
C. He has not enabled the new Domino 8 ODS
D. He does not have the designer client installed on his workstation
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the following mail features are not available in the basic version of the Lotus Notes client?
A. Message recall
B. Attention indicators
C. Choice of preview pane location
D. Reply to all without attachments
Answer: C

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NO.17 In general, how much space will a DB2 enabled Notes database utilize as compared to a replica in the
standard NSF format?
A. Equal size
B. Half the size
C. Two times more
D. Four times more
Answer: D

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NO.18 You have elected to create a marker so clients can update their reference to a database called
MARKETING.NSF. You did not select a designated destination server. Which of the following is the result
of this action?
A. The client will remove the bookmark reference for the database
B. The client will search all servers in the domain for a replica of the database and modify the bookmark
C. The client will search all known cluster servers only for a replica of the database and modify the
bookmark
D. The client will prompt the user to specify servers to search for a replica of the database and modify the
bookmark
Answer: A

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NO.19 The DB2 Access server facilitates your use of the Lotus Domino Designer view functions for DB2.
Which of the following are enabled by installing the DB2 Access server?
A. Replication
B. DB2 group locking
C. ACLs and reader lists
D. DB2 container storage
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following is required to be enabled for Server Fast Restart to function?
A. Cleanup Script
B. Fault Recovery
C. maximum Fault Limits
D. Server Shutdown Timeout
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 190-721
Exam Name: Lotus (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 7 Building the Infrastructure)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 90 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Latrice set up domain searching. Which one of the following is referenced when a domain
search is made?
A.Domain Catalog
B.Database Catalog
C.Domino Directory
D.Directory Assistance
Correct:A

Lotus   190-721   190-721 exam

NO.2 Event handlers contain numerous notification methods. Which of the following is NOT a
supported notification method?
A.Pager
B.Broadcast
C.Outbound phone call
D.Log to Windows NT Event Viewer
Correct:C

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NO.3 Automatic Diagnostic Collection stores reports in Fault Report documents. In what database are
these documents stored?
A.DDM.nsf
B.Reports.nsf
C.The log.nsf of each server
D.A mail-in database defined by the administrator
Correct:D

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NO.4 The Domino Domain Monitoring database (ddm.nsf) may be viewed from which of the following
client types?
A.Lotus Notes and Web client only
B.Lotus Notes and Domino Administrator only
C.Lotus Notes, Domino Administrator and Web client
D.Lotus Notes, Domino Administrator and Domino Developer
Correct:D

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NO.5 Which task in a Domino cluster checks for availability of other servers in the cluster?
A.Cluster Manager
B.Cluster Updater
C.Cluster Operator
D.Cluster Load Balancer
Correct:A

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NO.6 Due to space considerations on her Domino server, Anissa has had to locate new databases
under a folder not in the Domino data directory. Instead she has placed them on the F drive. Which
one of the following should Anissa use to make these databases accessible to the users?
A.Database Link
B.Directory Link
C.Profile Document
D.File Protection Document
Correct:B

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NO.7 If the Fault Analyzer task locates duplicate fault reports, which is the next step the task will take?
A.The new crash is reported as a response to the original crash
B.The new crash is not reported because it matches a previous fault reported
C.The new crash is reported as a new document but a doclink is created to the original
D.The new crash is reported as a new document and no reference to matching documents can be created
Correct:A

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NO.8 In which of the following databases does the Server Health Monitor store its health reports?
A.shmon.nsf
B.dommon.nsf
C.statrep.nsf
D.serverhm.nsf
Correct:B

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NO.9 The Domino administrator has created a response file for a silent server installation. What
parameter must be run on the server to utilize this response file?
A.setup.exe -silent -options c:\temp\install.txt
B.nsetup.exe -silent -options c:\temp\install.txt
C.setup.exe -response -options c:\temp\install.txt
D.silent.exe -response -options c:\temp\install.txt
Correct:A

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NO.10 Kevin, the Domino administrator, needs to connect to the Domino Controller through a firewall.
What program must be configured properly for this functionality?
A.Binder service
B.Service binder
C.Bind controller
D.Controller binder
Correct:B

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Exam Code: CPSM1
Exam Name: ISM (Foundation of Supply Management)
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Total Q&A: 128 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 According to Project Management Institute, which of the following is NOT the process group
of project?
Initiating
B. Organizing
C. Executing
D. Closing
Answer: B

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A. Procurement Management
B. Functional structure
C. Procedural structure
D. Performance Management
Answer: B

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NO.3 Contract statement of work is the output of which process group?
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Monitoring
D. Closing
Answer: A

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A. Project Life cycle
B. Project Executive
C. Project Management
D. Project Organization
Answer: C

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NO.5 A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service is called:
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C. Enterprise
D. Development
Answer: A

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Exam Name: ISEB (ISEB Certificate in Software Asset Management Essentials)
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Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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necessary?
A.The number of software related calls to the Service Desk
B.The cost of a site licence for existing software
C.The number of deployed licenses for each item of software
D.The number of new software licenses required.
Answer:A

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A.Identifying and assessing software risks and creating a risk register
B.Occasionally completing surprise or ad hoc reviews and audits
C.Highlighting any problems and raising the profile of continued non-conformance
D.Continuously emphasise the importance of the SAM process to all ICT and business personnel.
Answer:A

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NO.3 What method of metering would be BEST suited to a concurrent license based application?
A.Active
B.Selective
C.Non-selective.
D.Passive.
Answer:A

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NO.4 Which of the following BEST describes the objective of the Core Asset Management processes?
A.To maintain information about software assets throughout their lifecycle and to manage the physical
assets related to software
B.To manage all software assets and their licenses.
C.To manage all software and hardware assets
D.To identify and maintain information about all software assets throughout their lifecycle.
Answer:A

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NO.5 For reporting purposes which of the following would you NOT expect to be used to derive SAM reports?
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B.CMDB
C.OLA.
D.KEDB.
Answer:C

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Exam Code: ISEB-ITILV3F
Exam Name: ISEB (ITIL Foundation Certificate in IT Service Management)
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NO.1 Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Operation
phase of the Lifecycle?
1. Identifying configuration of user desktop PCs when Incidents are logged

NO.2 Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in an Operations Bridge?
A. Technical Management
B. IT Operations Management
C. Service Desk
D. Applications Management
Answer: B

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NO.3 Dashboard type technology
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: B

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2. Which of the following is NOT a FUNCTION?
A. Application Management
B. Service Desk
C. Incident Management
D. Technical Management
Answer: C

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3. Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Seven R's of Change
Management?
A. A set of questions that should be asked to help understand the impact of Changes
B. A seven step process for releasing Changes into production
C. A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing the success of a recent Change
D. A definition of the roles and responsibilities required for Change Management
Answer: A

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4. The BEST Processes to automate are those that are?
A. Carried out by Service Operations
B. Carried out by lots of people
C. Critical to the success of the business mission
D. Simple and well understood
Answer: D

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NO.4 Create and use diagnostic scripts

NO.5 Control of user desk-top PCs

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NO.1 Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?
A. Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge
B. Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom
C. Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - Data
D. Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom
Answer: B

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NO.2 The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of "the four Ps". What are
these four Ps?
A. People, process, partners, performance
B. Performance, process, products, plans
C. People, process, products, partners
D. People, products, plans, partners
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major
change that involved significant cost and risk to the organization?
A. Change proposal
B. Change policy
C. Service request
D. Risk register
Answer: A

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NO.4 Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?
A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often
undocumented
B. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process?
A. Process owner
B. Change manager
C. Service manager
D. Process practitioner
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?
A. Incident and financial management
B. Change and release and deployment management
C. Incident and event management
D. Knowledge and service level management
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following BEST describes service strategies value to the business?
A. Allows higher volumes of successful change
B. Reduction in unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages
C. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages
D. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make
their customers successful
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT
infrastructure?
A. Service level management
B. IT operations management
C. Capacity management
D. Incident management
Answer: B

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NO.9 At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service
be defined?
A. Service design: Design the processes
B. Service strategy: Develop the offerings
C. Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D. Service operation: IT operations management
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management?
A. To identify patterns of business activity
B. To ensure high levels of customer satisfaction
C. To secure funding to manage the provision of services
D. To ensure strategic plans for IT services exist
Answer: B

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Exam Code: CISSP-ISSEP
Exam Name: ISC (CISSP-ISSEP - Information Systems Security Engineering Professional)
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Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 Which of the following email lists is written for the technical audiences, and provides weekly
summaries of security issues, new vulnerabilities, potential impact, patches and workarounds, as well as
the actions recommended to mitigate risk
A. Cyber Security Tip
B. Cyber Security Alert
C. Cyber Security Bulletin
D. Technical Cyber Security Alert
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following professionals plays the role of a monitor and takes part in the organization's
configuration management process
A. Chief Information Officer
B. Authorizing Official
C. Common Control Provider
D. Senior Agency Information Security Officer
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following elements of Registration task 4 defines the system's external interfaces as well
as the purpose of each external interface, and the relationship between the interface and the system
A. System firmware
B. System software
C. System interface
D. System hardware
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following protocols is used to establish a secure terminal to a remote network device
A. WEP
B. SMTP
C. SSH
D. IPSec
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following security controls is a set of layered security services that address
communications and data security problems in the emerging Internet and intranet application space
A. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)
B. Common data security architecture (CDSA)
C. File encryptors
D. Application program interface (API)
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following documents is defined as a source document, which is most useful for the ISSE
when classifying the needed security functionality
A. Information Protection Policy (IPP)
B. IMM
C. System Security Context
D. CONOPS
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following Security Control Assessment Tasks gathers the documentation and supporting
materials essential for the assessment of the security controls in the information system
A. Security Control Assessment Task 4
B. Security Control Assessment Task 3
C. Security Control Assessment Task 1
D. Security Control Assessment Task 2
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following is a type of security management for computers and networks in order to identify
security breaches.?
A. IPS
B. IDS
C. ASA
D. EAP
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following tasks obtains the customer agreement in planning the technical effort
A. Task 9
B. Task 11
C. Task 8
D. Task 10
Answer: B

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NO.10 The Phase 4 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Post Accreditation. This phase starts after the system has
been accredited in Phase 3. What are the process activities of this phase Each correct answer represents
a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Security operations
B. Continue to review and refine the SSAA
C. Change management
D. Compliance validation
E. System operations
F. Maintenance of the SSAA
Answer: A,C,D,E,F

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NO.11 Part of your change management plan details what should happen in the change control system for
your project. Theresa, a junior project manager, asks what the configuration management activities are
for scope changes. You tell her that all of the following are valid configuration management activities
except for which one
A. Configuration Item Costing
B. Configuration Identification
C. Configuration Verification and Auditing
D. Configuration Status Accounting
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following guidelines is recommended for engineering, protecting, managing, processing,
and controlling national security and sensitive (although unclassified) information
A. Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS)
B. Special Publication (SP)
C. NISTIRs (Internal Reports)
D. DIACAP by the United States Department of Defense (DoD)
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following professionals is responsible for starting the Certification & Accreditation (C&A)
process
A. Authorizing Official
B. Information system owner
C. Chief Information Officer (CIO)
D. Chief Risk Officer (CRO)
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following is used to indicate that the software has met a defined quality level and is ready
for mass distribution either by electronic means or by physical media
A. ATM
B. RTM
C. CRO
D. DAA
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following federal laws is designed to protect computer data from theft
A. Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA)
B. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act (CFAA)
C. Government Information Security Reform Act (GISRA)
D. Computer Security Act
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following processes culminates in an agreement between key players that a system in its
current configuration and operation provides adequate protection controls
A. Certification and accreditation (C&A)
B. Risk Management
C. Information systems security engineering (ISSE)
D. Information Assurance (IA)
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following elements are described by the functional requirements task Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Coverage
B. Accuracy
C. Quality
D. Quantity
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.18 Which of the following documents were developed by NIST for conducting Certification & Accreditation
(C&A) Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. NIST Special Publication 800-59
B. NIST Special Publication 800-60
C. NIST Special Publication 800-37A
D. NIST Special Publication 800-37
E. NIST Special Publication 800-53
F. NIST Special Publication 800-53A
Answer: A,B,D,E,F

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NO.19 FITSAF stands for Federal Information Technology Security Assessment Framework. It is a
methodology for assessing the security of information systems. Which of the following FITSAF levels
shows that the procedures and controls are tested and reviewed?
A. Level 4
B. Level 5
C. Level 1
D. Level 2
E. Level 3
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following types of firewalls increases the security of data packets by remembering the state
of connection at the network and the session layers as they pass through the filter
A. Stateless packet filter firewall
B. PIX firewall
C. Stateful packet filter firewall
D. Virtual firewall
Answer: C

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