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Exam Code: CPSM1
Exam Name: ISM (Foundation of Supply Management)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 128 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 The process of coordinating the organization, planning, scheduling, controlling, monitoring
and evaluating of activities so that the objectives of a project are met is known as:
A. Project Life cycle
B. Project Executive
C. Project Management
D. Project Organization
Answer: C

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NO.2 Organizations less familiar with the discipline of project management usually begin by creating
task forces or committees within each role to tackle problem, known as:
A. Procurement Management
B. Functional structure
C. Procedural structure
D. Performance Management
Answer: B

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NO.3 A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service is called:
A. Project
B. Build
C. Enterprise
D. Development
Answer: A

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NO.4 Contract statement of work is the output of which process group?
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Monitoring
D. Closing
Answer: A

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NO.5 According to Project Management Institute, which of the following is NOT the process group
of project?
Initiating
B. Organizing
C. Executing
D. Closing
Answer: B

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Exam Name: ISEB (ISEB Intermediate Certificate in Software Testing)
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Total Q&A: 25 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Scenario 3 Data is transmitted over the internet as a series of packets. Each packet is sent to its
destination via the best available route. The decision on the best available route is made by a series of
routers on the internet. In order to make the best decision on the route to take, the router: 1)Scans the
destination address and matches it against rules set up in a configuration table. 2)Checks the
performance of the primary connection to see if it is good enough to send the packet. If not, it seeks an
alternative. Routers handle many millions of packets being sent at the same time. Packets can take the
form of email messages, data files etc. Which of the following best describes a testing challenge of the
application domain of the routers described?
A.Testing that the receivers PC can store emails routed to it.
B.Testing that large organisations can scan incoming files routed to them for viruses.
C.Testing that packets are delivered by the routers in the required timescales.
D.Testing that files can be sent in any language.
Answer:C

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NO.2 Scenario 3 Data is transmitted over the internet as a series of packets. Each packet is sent to its
destination via the best available route. The decision on the best available route is made by a series of
routers on the internet. In order to make the best decision on the route to take, the router: 1)Scans the
destination address and matches it against rules set up in a configuration table. 2)Checks the
performance of the primary connection to see if it is good enough to send the packet. If not, it seeks an
alternative. Routers handle many millions of packets being sent at the same time. Packets can take the
form of email messages, data files etc. A serious issue has arisen with emails arriving at the wrong
destinations. This is an intermittent problem, and seems to occur only at peak loading times. Which of the
following reviews would you recommend to address this issue?
A.A walkthrough of the requirement specification, to check for errors.
B.A management review of defects logged and cleared to see if defects are being addressed correctly.
C.A technical review of the industry standard routing protocols to see if they have inaccuracies in them.
D.An inspection of the code for this part of the functionality to try to localise the defective parts of the code.
Answer:D

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NO.3 Scenario 2 Your organisation is a large media services corporation (MSC). MSC uses Agile
development, within a Scrum framework. Here, the iterations are referred to as Sprints. For each Sprint, a
set of user-stories is defined, built, and tested. The user-stories are typically 1-2 lines long, indicating
what the customer wants the system to do. MSC is in the process of updating its website to meet the
recently introduced accessibility rules for websites. Accessibility means the availability of a system
suitable to members of the public with, for example, visual or hearing difficulties. It has been decided to
start with two requirements, as its first 2 Sprints: 1)Presentation of content with clear headings, short
sentences, text versions always available. 2)Consistent navigation through the website. You are the test
manager and there are four developers and two testers. You have all worked together previously, and are
very experienced in MSCs products. Although the accessibility rules are new to you and the team, you
have all attended a workshop where they were explained. Which of the following are product risks and
which are project risks? a.The navigation through some parts of the website may need to be different from
others. b.Sprint 1 may not be completed on time, leading to a delay to the start of Sprint 2. c.Text versions
of images may not always be possible. d.There may be a need to buy a capture-replay tool for regression
testing. e.A key member of the team may leave before the Sprints have been completed.
A.a, b and c are product risks, d and e are project risks.
B.a and c are products risks, b, d and e are project risks.
C.b, c and e are product risks, a and d are project risks.
D.a, d and e are product risks, b and c are project risks.
Answer:B

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NO.4 Scenario 1 A computerised system is being created to monitor the life support system on board a
submarine. It monitors air quality, water supplies and temperature. This system will be supplied and
maintained by SubsInc. SubsInc uses the V-model for software development and conducts four levels of
testing, from unit through to operational and site acceptance testing. Two key risks identified for the air
quality system are: 1. If the percentage of oxygen in the air falls too low, personnel may suffocate 2. If the
concentration of carbon dioxide in the air rises too high, the air may become toxic. To address these risks,
the requirement specification for this system includes the following requirements: R1)Oxygen must be
replaced as it is consumed. R2)Carbon dioxide must be removed from the air. These requirements must
be reflected in the functional, technical and program specification documents. You are a newly recruited
test manager. A risk register has been produced with the following additional risks identified. Which one is
a product risk associated with the air quality management system?
A.The system required to monitor oxygen levels may be more expensive than those required to monitor
air temperatures.
B.SubsInc may need to recruit extra developers and testers to deliver the project on time.
C.Oxygen levels may reach dangerously low levels.
D.Extreme temperatures may lead to heat exhaustion of personnel.
Answer:C

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NO.5 Scenario 3 Data is transmitted over the internet as a series of packets. Each packet is sent to its
destination via the best available route. The decision on the best available route is made by a series of
routers on the internet. In order to make the best decision on the route to take, the router: 1)Scans the
destination address and matches it against rules set up in a configuration table. 2)Checks the
performance of the primary connection to see if it is good enough to send the packet. If not, it seeks an
alternative. Routers handle many millions of packets being sent at the same time. Packets can take the
form of email messages, data files etc. Which of the following would be applicable as part of a test policy
for testing these types of systems? a.Systems must be tested for compliance to industry standard routing
protocols. b.Testing for the latest upgrade will require testing of increased network traffic of 100%.
c.Testing for the fix will require the use of dynamic analysis tools. d.Releases will not be made if systems
have any high priority defects outstanding.
A.a and b.
B.a and d.
C.b and c.
D.b and d.
Answer:B

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Exam Code: BH0-012
Exam Name: ISEB (The Foundation® ITIL (2012 Onwards) )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 166 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?
A. Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B. Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C. Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the
service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes
Answer: A

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NO.2 At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service
be defined?
A. Service design: Design the processes
B. Service strategy: Develop the offerings
C. Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D. Service operation: IT operations management
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service level agreement (SLA)?
A. The part of a contract that specifies the responsibilities of each party
B. An agreement between the service provider and an internal organization
C. An agreement between a service provider and an external supplier
D. An agreement between the service provider and their customer
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following should IT service continuity strategy be based on?
1.Design of the service metrics
2.Business continuity strategy
3.Business impact analysis (BIA)
4.Risk assessment
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which one of the following is NOT the responsibility of service catalogue management?
A. Ensuring that information in the service catalogue is accurate
B. Ensuring that service level agreements are maintained
C. Ensuring that information in the service catalogue is consistent with information in the service
portfolio
D. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the service catalogue
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of the service transition stage of the
service lifecycle?
A. To ensure that a service can be managed and operated in accordance with constraints specified
during design
B. To design and develop capabilities for service management
C. To provide good-quality knowledge and information about services
D. To plan the resources required to manage a release
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster
than the normal change process?
A. Technical management
B. Emergency change advisory board
C. Urgent change board
D. Urgent change authority
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which stage of the service lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?
A. Service design
B. Service transition
C. Continual service improvement
D. Service operation
Answer: A

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NO.9 What should a service always deliver to customers?
A. Applications
B. Infrastructure
C. Value
D. Resources
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which one of the following activities are carried out during the "Where do we want to be?"
step of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach?
A. Implementing service and process improvements
B. Reviewing measurements and metrics
C. Creating a baseline
D. Defining measurable targets
Answer: D

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NO.1 Adam works as a Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator for a garment company in the United States.
A project has been assigned to him to investigate a case of a disloyal employee who is suspected of
stealing design of the garments, which belongs to the company and selling those garments of the same
design under different brand name. Adam investigated that the company does not have any policy related
to the copy of design of the garments. He also investigated that the trademark under which the employee
is selling the garments is almost identical to the original trademark of the company. On the grounds of
which of the following laws can the employee be prosecuted?
A. Espionage law
B. Trademark law
C. Cyber law
D. Copyright law
Answer: B

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NO.2 DoD 8500.2 establishes IA controls for information systems according to the Mission Assurance
Categories (MAC) and confidentiality levels. Which of the following MAC levels requires high integrity and
medium availability?
A. MAC III
B. MAC IV
C. MAC I
D. MAC II
Answer: D

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NO.3 In which of the following types of tests are the disaster recovery checklists distributed to the members
of disaster recovery team and asked to review the assigned checklist?
A. Parallel test
B. Simulation test
C. Full-interruption test
D. Checklist test
Answer: D

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NO.4 What are the various activities performed in the planning phase of the Software Assurance Acquisition
process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Develop software requirements.
B. Implement change control procedures.
C. Develop evaluation criteria and evaluation plan.
D. Create acquisition strategy.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 You are the project manager for GHY Project and are working to create a risk response for a negative
risk. You and the project team have identified the risk that the project may not complete on time, as
required by the management, due to the creation of the user guide for the software you're creating. You
have elected to hire an external writer in order to satisfy the requirements and to alleviate the risk event.
What type of risk response have you elected to use in this instance?
A. Transference
B. Exploiting
C. Avoidance
D. Sharing
Answer: A

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NO.6 Part of your change management plan details what should happen in the change control system for
your project. Theresa, a junior project manager, asks what the configuration management activities are
for scope changes. You tell her that all of the following are valid configuration management activities
except for which one?
A. Configuration Identification
B. Configuration Verification and Auditing
C. Configuration Status Accounting
D. Configuration Item Costing
Answer: D

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NO.7 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are working on a project and the management
wants a rapid and cost-effective means for establishing priorities for planning risk responses in your
project. Which risk management process can satisfy management's objective for your project?
A. Qualitative risk analysis
B. Historical information
C. Rolling wave planning
D. Quantitative analysis
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following roles is also known as the accreditor?
A. Data owner
B. Chief Risk Officer
C. Chief Information Officer
D. Designated Approving Authority
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following organizations assists the President in overseeing the preparation of the federal
budget and to supervise its administration in Executive Branch agencies?
A. OMB
B. NIST
C. NSA/CSS
D. DCAA
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following types of redundancy prevents attacks in which an attacker can get physical
control of a machine, insert unauthorized software, and alter data?
A. Data redundancy
B. Hardware redundancy
C. Process redundancy
D. Application redundancy
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following is the duration of time and a service level within which a business process must
be restored after a disaster in order to avoid unacceptable consequences associated with a break in
business continuity?
A. RTO
B. RTA
C. RPO
D. RCO
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following processes culminates in an agreement between key players that a system in its
current configuration and operation provides adequate protection controls?
A. Information Assurance (IA)
B. Information systems security engineering (ISSE)
C. Certification and accreditation (C&A)
D. Risk Management
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following DITSCAP C&A phases takes place between the signing of the initial version of
the SSAA and the formal accreditation of the system?
A. Phase 4
B. Phase 3
C. Phase 1
D. Phase 2
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following models uses a directed graph to specify the rights that a subject can transfer to
an object or that a subject can take from another subject?
A. Take-Grant Protection Model
B. Biba Integrity Model
C. Bell-LaPadula Model
D. Access Matrix
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following process areas does the SSE-CMM define in the 'Project and Organizational
Practices' category? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Provide Ongoing Skills and Knowledge
B. Verify and Validate Security
C. Manage Project Risk
D. Improve Organization's System Engineering Process
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.16 The LeGrand Vulnerability-Oriented Risk Management method is based on vulnerability analysis and
consists of four principle steps. Which of the following processes does the risk assessment step include?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Remediation of a particular vulnerability
B. Cost-benefit examination of countermeasures
C. Identification of vulnerabilities
D. Assessment of attacks
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.17 Microsoft software security expert Michael Howard defines some heuristics for determining code review
in "A Process for Performing Security Code Reviews". Which of the following heuristics increase the
application's attack surface? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Code written in C/C++/assembly language
B. Code listening on a globally accessible network interface
C. Code that changes frequently
D. Anonymously accessible code
E. Code that runs by default
F. Code that runs in elevated context
Answer: B,D,E,F

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NO.18 You work as a Security Manager for Tech Perfect Inc. You have set up a SIEM server for the following
purposes: Analyze the data from different log sources Correlate the events among the log entries Identify
and prioritize significant events Initiate responses to events if required One of your log monitoring staff
wants to know the features of SIEM product that will help them in these purposes. What features will you
recommend? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Asset information storage and correlation
B. Transmission confidentiality protection
C. Incident tracking and reporting
D. Security knowledge base
E. Graphical user interface
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.19 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security
of www.we-are-secure.com. In order to do so, he performs the following steps of the pre-attack phase
successfully: Information gathering Determination of network range Identification of active systems
Location of open ports and applications Now, which of the following tasks should he perform next?
A. Perform OS fingerprinting on the We-are-secure network.
B. Map the network of We-are-secure Inc.
C. Install a backdoor to log in remotely on the We-are-secure server.
D. Fingerprint the services running on the we-are-secure network.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following security design patterns provides an alternative by requiring that a user's
authentication credentials be verified by the database before providing access to that user's data?
A. Secure assertion
B. Authenticated session
C. Password propagation
D. Account lockout
Answer: C

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NO.21 .Which of the following cryptographic system services ensures that information will not be disclosed to
any unauthorized person on a local network?
A. Authentication
B. Integrity
C. Non-repudiation
D. Confidentiality
Answer: D

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NO.22 Which of the following individuals inspects whether the security policies, standards, guidelines, and
procedures are efficiently performed in accordance with the company's stated security objectives?
A. Information system security professional
B. Data owner
C. Senior management
D. Information system auditor
Answer: D

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NO.23 In which of the following testing methodologies do assessors use all available documentation and work
under no constraints, and attempt to circumvent the security features of an information system?
A. Full operational test
B. Penetration test
C. Paper test
D. Walk-through test
Answer: B

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NO.24 You work as a Network Auditor for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. While
auditing the company's network, you are facing problems in searching the faults and other entities that
belong to it. Which of the following risks may occur due to the existence of these problems?
A. Residual risk
B. Secondary risk
C. Detection risk
D. Inherent risk
Answer: C

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NO.25 Which of the following penetration testing techniques automatically tests every phone line in an
exchange and tries to locate modems that are attached to the network?
A. Demon dialing
B. Sniffing
C. Social engineering
D. Dumpster diving
Answer: A

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NO.26 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. models address specifications, requirements, design,
verification and validation, and maintenance activities.
A. Life cycle
Answer: A

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NO.27 The National Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (NIACAP) is the minimum
standard process for the certification and accreditation of computer and telecommunications systems that
handle U.S. national security information. Which of the following participants are required in a NIACAP
security assessment.?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Certification agent
B. Designated Approving Authority
C. IS program manager
D. Information Assurance Manager
E. User representative
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.28 DRAG DROP
Drop the appropriate value to complete the formula.
Answer:

NO.29 The Information System Security Officer (ISSO) and Information System Security Engineer (ISSE)
play the role of a supporter and advisor, respectively. Which of the following statements are true about
ISSO and ISSE? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. An ISSE manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation
(C&A).
B. An ISSE provides advice on the continuous monitoring of the information system.
C. An ISSO manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation
(C&A).
D. An ISSE provides advice on the impacts of system changes. E. An ISSO takes part in the development
activities that are required to implement system changes.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.30 According to U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) Instruction 8500.2, there are eight Information
Assurance (IA) areas, and the controls are referred to as IA controls. Which of the following are among
the eight areas of IA defined by DoD? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all
that apply.
A. VI Vulnerability and Incident Management
B. Information systems acquisition, development, and maintenance
C. DC Security Design & Configuration
D. EC Enclave and Computing Environment
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.1 Which of the following Lotus SameTime portlets displays a list of people currently logged into the page
or virtual page with whom the user is able to chat?
A. Who Is Here portlet
B. Lotus Web Conferencing portlet
C. Sametime Contact List portlet
D. Lotus Instant Messaging portlet
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which actions are allowed for users in the Editor role?
A. Creating, deleting, and configuring resources
B. Creating and configuring resources
C. Viewing portal content and creating resources
D. Creating and deleting resources
Answer: B

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NO.3 When viewing a list of documents in the Document Manager portlet, what can a user do to open a
document for editing?
A. Right-click the document and select Edit
B. Select the document, click the Edit Document link, and click Open File
C. Click the document name, click Edit from the document view panel, and click Open File
D. Double-click the document
Answer: AB

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NO.4 How is a portlet is packaged?
A. As an Enterprise Archive file
B. As a Java Archive file
C. As a Web module
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which role type, when assigned for a specific resource, may act as a delegated administrator for that
resource?
A. Administrator
B. Security Administrator
C. Delegator
D. Manager
Answer: B

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NO.1 A company would like the ability to notify the security administrator whenever there is a failed log in
attempt by a user.Which series of steps must the company complete to accomplish this goal?
A.Check the Failed Login checkbox in both the System Logging and User Exit Logging sections on the
System Parameters window.
B.Check the Failed Login checkbox in the User Exit Logging section on the System Parameters window.
C.Write a user exit program to send a message to the system administrator and check the Failed Login
checkbox in both the System Logging and User Exit Logging sections on the System Parameters window.
D.Write a user exit program to send a message to the system administrator and check the Failed Login
checkbox in the User Exit Logging section on the System Parameters window.
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer intends to store all of its archive data into DR550 or Centera storage devices.Which
statement is true?
A.An OnDemand storage set links directly to a DR550 or a Centera device.
B.TSM cannot be configured to interface with Centera devices.
C.TSM can be configured to interface with DR550 or a Centera devices.
D.OnDemand can write directly to Centera devices; therefore TSM is not required.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which two can be used to view data that is output from the AFP2HTML transform? (Choose two.)
A.the AFP2HTML applet
B.the native Web browser
C.the AFP Plug-in
D.the Line Data applet
E.the Adobe Acrobat Reader
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 An application group specifies to Migrate Data from cache as "When Data is Loaded".A report is
archived into OnDemand.In addition to the CACHE directory, a copy of the archived report is placed into
which directory?
A.ASMAGGREGATION
B.ASMREQUEST
C.TMP
D.LOAD
Answer: B

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NO.5 A company plans to store a 6500-page document in OnDemand.Which action should be used to view
a few pages in this document at a time?
A.Create a table index.
B.Enable large object support.
C.Use fewer triggers when indexing.
D.Add an application ID to the application group.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Before using the Report Wizard to define a PDF report, what must be installed on the PC running the
OnDemand Administrative Client?
A.The PDF Indexer
B.Adobe Acrobat
C.Adobe Acrobat Reader
D.The OnDemand PDF Wizard
Answer: B

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NO.7 To load data into a TSM controlled data storage device, which attribute must match the OnDemand
storage node attributes defined within a Storage Set?
A.TSM node name and password
B.Copy Group name and password
C.Policy Set name and password
D.Policy Domain name and password
Answer: A

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NO.8 What can be specified when defining a report using the Report Wizard?
A.Segment Date format
B.logical view
C.Postprocessor Parameters
D.Large Object support
Answer: D

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NO.9 An administrator wants to store a System Log message whenever a user deletes an annotation.The box
in the Application Group Message Logging for Annotation Delete is checked.A test is performed to
validate that messages are being stored as expected.The administrator deletes an annotation and then
queries the System Log for the proper message (Message number 70), but nothing is returned.Which
additional required step should be completed for the proper message to be logged?
A.Annotation delete message logging must be selected for the administrator's userid.
B.The System Log does not have an option to store a message for annotation deletions.
C.Administrator permissions allow annotations to be deleted and so no message is stored.
D.Application Group Messages must be checked in the System Logging section of the System
Parameters.
Answer: D

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NO.10 What does a validation string used by OnDemand validate?
A.the load information for the current page
B.the field information for the current page
C.that the current page can be indexed and stored
D.that the current page can be viewed with the logical view
Answer: D

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NO.11 An OnDemand system administrator runs the STRDSMOND command specifying a specific
application group and sets the RUNASM parameter to *YES.Which statement reflects how ASM will run?
A.ASM will run for all application groups.
B.ASM will run for only the application groups specified for DSM.
C.ASM will fail unless you have named a specific policy to process.
D.ASM will run in the same batch job immediately after STRDSMOND completes.
Answer: A

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NO.12 To create a default date-range search option for a report to specify the last six months, which task must
be completed?
A.Change the application group default date-range interval.
B.Change the Folder - Field Information default date-range interval.
C.Change the Application - Load Information default date-range interval.
D.Change both the folder and the application default date-range intervals.
Answer: B

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NO.13 An OnDemand administrator has received an error message indicating that journaling needs to be
restarted for the OnDemand database files.Which command would be used to accomplish this task?
A.Select the restart journaling option from the OnDemand Administrative client.
B.Use the RSTONDJRN command.
C.Use the RSTJRNOND command.
D.Run program QRLCSTRJ with parameter PARM(RLC) from the command line.
Answer: D

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NO.14 What must be enabled on the browser for the OnDemand Web Enablement Kit to function properly?
A.cookies
B.active scripting
C.script debugging
D.ActiveX controls
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which command(s) would be used to delete both the index data and documents stored during the load
process?
A.DLTRPTOND
B.RMVIDXOND and RMVRPTOND
C.RMVRPTOND
D.DLTIDXOND and DLTRPTOND
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which function does the OnDemand server run to allow users to connect to an OnDemand system
through the Client for Windows?
A.the arscnct job
B.the client/server job
C.the arssockd job
D.the DB2 Connect job
Answer: C

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NO.17 An Advanced Function Printing Data stream (AFPDS) report is displayed using the OnDemand
Client.An error message is displayed indicating that the requested font is not found.Which action should
be performed to keep those error message from being displayed in the future?
A.Update the code pages in the ICU Font Library.
B.Repackage the OnDemand Client installation with AFP font support.
C.Update the *.cp files in the FONT\MAPS directory.
D.Update the ICU Data Library with custom conversion tables.
Answer: D

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NO.18 A customer is looking for a way to do a broad search across the entire enterprise for content stored on
their websites, file systems, and DB2 Content Manager.Which product provides this capability?
A.OmniFind
B.DB2 CommonStore
C.DB2 Content Manager
D.WebSphere Information Integrator Content Edition
Answer: A

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NO.19 A report layout contains multiple account numbers (each containing 10 numeric characters) per page
but there are some inconsistencies when locating account numbers.Often, a description field will overlap
into the account number column.These numbers do not appear sequentially.What can be used to ensure
that the indexer will collect only the account number and not part of the description?
A.Define the field with a mask and offset values
B.Define the field based on a floating trigger
C.Define the field based on a floating trigger with mask values
D.Define the field based on a floating trigger with mask and offset values
Answer: C

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NO.20 After installing the OnDemand Web Enablement Kit (ODWEK) software, what must be done before you
can begin configuring the ODWEK initialization file for your operating environment?
A.Configure the HTTP server.
B.Configure the OnDemand server.
C.Configure the client PC.
D.Configure the Web Application Server.
Answer: A

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NO.1 Self tuning memory simplifies the task of memory configuration by automatically setting values for
memoryconfiguration parameters and sizing buffer pools. When enabled, the memory tuner dynamically
distributes availablememory resources between _____.
A. several buffer pools
B. several memory consumers including sort, package cache, lock list areas, and buffer pools
C. several memory consumers including sort, package cache, monitor heap, and lock list areas
D. several memory consumers including load and buffer pools
Answer: B

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NO.2 Given the following command: BACKUP DB dbtest UTIL_IMPACT_PRIORITY 20Which command
should be executed prior to the BACKUP command in order for the backup operation to run inthrottled
mode?
A. UPDATE DB CFG FOR dbtest USING UTIL_IMPACT_LIM ON
B. UPDATE DBM CFG USING UTIL_IMPACT_LIM 100
C. UPDATE DBM CFG USING UTIL_IMPACT_PRIORITY ON
D. UPDATE DBM CFG USING UTIL_IMPACT_LIM 50
Answer: D

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NO.3 A database administrator needs to obtain the self tuning settings for a database named MYDB. Which
command should be issued?
A. db2set -all
B. GET DBM CFG SHOW DETAIL
C. GET DB CFG FOR mydb SHOW DETAIL
D. LIST MEMORY SETTINGS FOR mydb
Answer: C

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NO.4 During a routine inspection of database MYDB, a database administrator obtained the following
information by
executing the command GET DB CFG FOR mydb. (Note: output has been reduced to conserve space.)
Automatic maintenance (AUTO_MAINT) = OFF Automatic database backup (AUTO_DB_BACKUP) =
OFF Automatic table maintenance (AUTO_TBL_MAINT) = OFF
Automatic runstats (AUTO_RUNSTATS) = OFFAutomatic statistics profiling (AUTO_STATS_PROF) =
OFF Automatic profile updates (AUTO_PROF_UPD) = ON Automatic reorganization (AUTO_REORG) =
ON
Which command will activate automatic statistics collection for the database MYDB?
A. UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_MAINT ON AUTO_STATS_PROF OFF
AUTO_PROF_UPD OFF
B. UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_RUNSTATS ON AUTO_STATS_PROF ON
C. UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_MAINT ON AUTO_TBL_MAINT ON AUTO_RUNSTATS
ON
D. UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_TBL_MAINT ON AUTO_STATS_PROF ON
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which commands will set the throttling percentage for a running backup operation that has a Utility ID
of 2 for adatabase named DBTEST in an instance named DB2INST1 to 10 percent?
A. db2set UTIL_IMPACT_LIMIT=ON; SET UTIL_IMPACT_PRIORITY FOR 2 TO 10;
B. UPDATE DB CFG FOR dbtest USING UTIL_IMPACT_LIM ON; SET UTIL_IMPACT_LIM FOR 2 TO
10;
C. UPDATE DBM CFG USING UTIL_IMPACT_PRIORITY ON; SET UTIL_IMPACT_LIMIT FOR 2 TO 10;
D. UPDATE DBM CFG USING UTIL_IMPACT_LIM ON; SET UTIL_IMPACT_PRIORITY FOR 2 TO 10;
Answer: D

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NO.6 Given the following server information:Instance name: db2inst1Port number: 50000 Service name:
db2c_db2inst1Hostname: 1080:0:0:0:8:800:200C:417ADatabase: db2tcpWhich command will catalog a
node for this server?
A. CATALOG TCPIP6 NODE db2tcp 1080:0:0:0:8:800:200C:417A SERVER 50000
B. CATALOG TCPIP6 NODE db2tcp REMOTE 1080:0:0:0:8:800:200C:417A SERVER 50000
C. CATALOG TCPIP4 NODE db2tcp 1080:0:0:0:8:800:200C:417A SERVER 50000
D. CATALOG TCPIP4 NODE db2tcp REMOTE 1080:0:0:0:8:800:200C:417A SERVER 50000
Answer: B

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NO.7 A database administrator wishes to enable automatic table and index reorganization. Which set of
DatabaseConfiguration parameters must be set to ON for automatic table and index reorganization to be
enabled?
A. AUTO_MAINT, AUTO_REORG
B. AUTO_MAINT, AUTO_TBL_MAINT, AUTO_REORG
C. AUTO_MAINT, AUTO_RUNSTATS, AUTO_REORG
D. AUTO_TBL_MAINT, AUTO_REORG
Answer: B

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NO.8 The test database MYDB requires frequent table and index reorganization to support ongoing
application development. A database administrator obtained the following information by executing the
command GET DB CFG
FOR mydb. (Note: output has been reduced to conserve space.) Automatic maintenance (AUTO_MAINT)
= OFF Automatic database backup AUTO_DB_BACKUP) = OFF Automatic table maintenance
(AUTO_TBL_MAINT) = OFF Automatic runstats (AUTO_RUNSTATS) = OFF Automatic statistics profiling
(AUTO_STATS_PROF) = OFF Automatic profile updates (AUTO_PROF_UPD) = OFF Automatic
reorganization (AUTO_REORG) = OFF
Which commands will enable automatic table and index reorganization for the database MYDB?
A. REORG TABLE ALL FOR DB mydb AUTOMATICALLY; REORG INDEXES ALL FOR DB mydb
AUTOMATICALLY;
B. UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_MAINT ON; UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING
AUTO_REORG ON;
C. UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_TABLE_MAINT ON; UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb
USING AUTO_REORG ON;
D. RESET DB CFG FOR mydb;UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_REORG ON;
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which explanation describing the AUTOCONFIGURE command is valid?
A. The AUTOCONFIGURE command will only make recommendations based on the assumption of a
single databaseper instance.
B. When explicitly invoking the Configuration Advisor using the AUTOCONFIGURE command, the
registry setting ofDB2_ENABLE_AUTOCONFIG_DEFAULT will be honored; this variable must be set to
ON in order for the AUTOCONFIGURE command to be run successfully.
C. The AUTOCONFIGURE command does not require an explicit database connection.
D. When using the BUFFERPOOL keyword and a value of 50, AUTOCONFIGURE will tell DB2 to use 50%
of the database shared memory for the buffer pools.
Answer:A

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NO.10 Which list of keywords contains values that are all valid input parameters for the AUTOCONFIGURE
command?
A. mem_percent, workload_type, tpm, isolation
B. mem_percent, workload_type, stmm, isolation
C. workload_type, isolation, num_apps, tpm
D. mem_percent, tpm, stmm, isolation
Answer
Answer:A

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