Best exercises of Symantec certification 850-001 exam and answers

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Exam Code: 850-001
Exam Name: Symantec (Cloud Security 1.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 92 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What is a valid security concern when designing a cloud architecture that heavily leverages
SaaS
providers?
A. lack of a metered model from the cloud provider
B. inefficient workflows for change control
C. inherent flaws in web-based applications
D. inability to support iOS devices
Answer: C

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NO.2 A company is invested heavily in migrating their IT infrastructure to an IaaS cloud provider. It is
determined that the storage infrastructure of the service provider resides in a country with weak
laws on data privacy. As a result, the cloud service provider may be required to turn over the
company's data for legal review. Which action could the company take to prevent the cloud
service provider from disclosing the company's data?
A. require the service provider to encrypt the data
B. migrate the infrastructure to a new cloud provider
C. implement their own legal discovery solution
D. implement their own encryption solution
Answer: D

Symantec   850-001   850-001 test questions   850-001

NO.3 A company is reaching their maximum CPU load for their email and Web servers, and begins
investigation of public IaaS cloud bursting. The company is concerned about complex attack
vectors launched against the hosted systems. To protect the assets, a number of Symantec
security products will also be migrated. Which Symantec security solution provides continuous
system visibility across all devices and facilitates detection of complex attack vectors?
A. Critical System Protection
B. Security Information Manager
C. Gateway Security
D. Endpoint Protection with Network Threat Protection
Answer: B

Symantec   850-001   850-001

NO.4 What can a hosted Symantec Data Loss Prevention solution do to protect confidential data in
an
outgoing email?
A. modify the email attachment content to remove confidential information
B. add a header to an email to route to an encryption gateway
C. use a Flex Response plug-in to modify the email header
D. modify the email body to redirect to a quarantine location
Answer: B

Symantec   850-001   850-001 answers real questions

NO.5 A large international wealth management firm has a liberal mobile device policy for its
employees.
During the pre-adoption period, strategic documents are accessed and saved to the mobile
devices by the workforce. Which data security technology stops employees from sending these
documents to unauthorized parties?
A. data loss protection technologies
B. two-factor authentication technologies
C. web filtering technologies
D. encryption technologies
Answer: C

Symantec test   850-001   850-001   850-001 exam

NO.6 A cloud service customer is facing application failure and data corruption in their virtual
infrastructure. The IT department has asked for a solution that will scan for rogue virtual machines,
which will reduce the security risk in physical and virtual infrastructure. Which solution can fulfill
the requirement?
A. Symantec Critical Systems Protection
B. Symantec Control Compliance Suite
C. Symantec Endpoint Protection
D. Symantec Security Information Manager
Answer: B

Symantec study guide   850-001   850-001 dumps   850-001 study guide

NO.7 An organization has mandated that workflow for certain SaaS applications must travel over
slower
leased lines and through the company's cloud in order to mitigate security concerns of the CISO.
Which end user behavior vulnerability can this cause?
A. waiting until close of business to send their data
B. lack of concern with international charges
C. finding an alternate network path
D. disabling personal firewall to maximize bandwidth
Answer: C

Symantec   850-001 pdf   850-001   850-001

NO.8 What is the most effective strategy for an IT professional to implement an IT governance, risk,
and
compliance solution in a private cloud?
A. use a checkbox approach to gather IT controls manually to identify high-risk vulnerabilities
B. utilize Excel spreadsheets, email-based questionnaires, or SharePoint sites to thoroughly
document IT controls
C. ensure anti-virus is deployed on all critical assets to stay ahead of threats and avoid data
breaches
D. put an automated program in place to identify vulnerabilities and security gaps and to track
remediation
Answer: A

Symantec certification   850-001 original questions   850-001   850-001 questions   850-001 test

NO.9 An enterprise is in the process of moving application servers to a cloud-based IaaS platform.
Which technology should an IT professional use to assess the risk of the IT assets in a business
context?
A. Symantec Control Compliance Suite
B. Symantec Critical Systems Protection
C. Symantec Data Loss Prevention
D. Symantec Validation and Identity Protection
Answer: D

Symantec   850-001 exam dumps   850-001   850-001   850-001

NO.10 Which factor exists in many organizations that inhibits an effective IT Governance, Risk, and
Compliance program?
A. High-level reports and dashboards provide a C-Level view of the enterprise risk posture.
B. Policies tied to controls are defined to address multiple regulations and frameworks.
C. Technical controls on assets from multiple business units are regularly evaluated to determine
aggregate risk.
D. Numerous assessment tools are deployed throughout the enterprise, generating vendorspecific
reports.
Answer: D

Symantec   850-001 pdf   850-001   850-001

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SUN 310-025 exam pdf dumps

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Exam Code: 310-025
Exam Name: SUN (Sun Java Certified Programmer)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 160 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which will declare a method that forces a subclass to implement it?
A. Public double methoda();
B. Static void methoda (double d1) {}
C. Public native double methoda();
D. Abstract public void methoda();
E. Protected void methoda (double d1){}
Answer.D

SUN   310-025   310-025 original questions   310-025

NO.2 }

SUN   310-025   310-025 original questions   310-025

NO.3

SUN   310-025   310-025 original questions   310-025

NO.4 public static void main (String args[]) {

SUN   310-025   310-025 original questions   310-025

NO.5 BufferReplace (textBuffer);

SUN   310-025   310-025 original questions   310-025

NO.6

SUN   310-025   310-025 original questions   310-025

NO.7 Given.
1. public class foo {
2. public static void main (String[]args) {
3. String s;
4. system.out.printIn ("s=" + s);
5. }
6. }
What is the result?
A. The code compiles and "s=" is printed.
B. The code compiles and "s=null" is printed.
C. The code does not compile because string s is not initialized.
D. The code does not compile because string s cannot be referenced.
E. The code compiles, but a NullPointerException is thrown when toString is called.
Answer.C

SUN   310-025   310-025 original questions   310-025

NO.8 Which declaration prevents creating a subclass of an outer class?
A. Static class FooBar{}
B. Private class FooBar{}
C. Abstract public class FooBar{}
D. Final public class FooBar{}
E. Final abstract class FooBar{}
Answer.D

SUN   310-025   310-025 original questions   310-025

NO.9 System.out.printLn (textString + textBuffer);

SUN   310-025   310-025 original questions   310-025

NO.10 stringReplace (textString);

SUN   310-025   310-025 original questions   310-025

NO.11 Exhibit.
1. public class test(
2. public int aMethod()[
3. static int i=0;
4. i++;
5. return I;
6. )
7. public static void main (String args[]){
8. test test = new test();
9. test.aMethod(); 10.int j = test.aMethod(); 11.System.out.printIn(j); 12.] 13.} What is the result?
A. Compilation will fail.
B. Compilation will succeed and the program will print "0"
C. Compilation will succeed and the program will print "1"
D. Compilation will succeed and the program will print "2"
Answer.D

SUN   310-025   310-025 original questions   310-025

NO.12 public static void main (String args[] } (

SUN   310-025   310-025 original questions   310-025

NO.13 Given.
1. byte [] arry1, array2[];
2. byte array3 [][];
3. byte[][] array4;
If each array has been initialized, which statement will cause a compiler error?
A. Array2 = array1;
B. Array2 = array3;
C. Array2 = array4;
D. Both A and B
E. Both A and C
F. Both B and C
Answer.F

SUN   310-025   310-025 original questions   310-025

NO.14 )
What is the decimal value of j at line 5?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 14
D. -15
E. An error at line 3 causes compilation to fail.
F. An error at line 4 causes compilation to fail.
Answer.C
2.Given.Integer i = new Integer (42); Long 1 = new Long (42); Double d = new Double (42.0); Which two
expressions evaluate to True? (Choose Two)
A. (i ==1)
B. (i == d)
C. (d == 1)
D. (i.equals (d))
E. (d.equals (i))
F. (i.equals (42))
Answer.D, E
3.Exhibit .
1. public class test (
2. private static int j = 0;
3.
4. private static boolean methodB(int k) (
5. j += k;
6. return true;
1. )
2.
3. public static void methodA(int i) {
4. boolean b.
5. b = i < 10 | methodB (4);
6. b = i < 10 || methodB (8);
7. )

SUN   310-025   310-025 original questions   310-025

NO.15 methodA (0);

SUN   310-025   310-025 original questions   310-025

NO.16 )

SUN   310-025   310-025 original questions   310-025

NO.17 Given.
1. public class test(
2. public static void main(string[]args){
3. string foo = args [1];
4. string foo = args [2];
5. string foo = args [3];
6. }
7. } And command line invocation.Java Test red green blue What is the result?
A. Baz has the value of ""
B. Baz has the value of null
C. Baz has the value of "red"
D. Baz has the value of "blue"
E. Bax has the value of "green"
F. The code does not compile.
G. The program throws an exception.
Answer.G

SUN   310-025   310-025 original questions   310-025

NO.18 )
What is the result?
A. The program prints "0"
B. The program prints "4"
C. The program prints "8"
D. The program prints "12"
E. The code does not complete.
Answer.B
4.Given
1. Public class test (
2. Public static void main (String args[]) (
3. System.out.printIn (6

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Exam Code: 310-301
Exam Name: SUN (Sun Certified Security Administrator)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 240 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which statement about denial of service attack is FALSE?
A.Denial of service is always preventable.
B.Multiple machines may be used as the source of the attack.
C.Service is denied on the victim host when a key resource is consumed.
D.A denial of service attack is an explicit attempt by an attacker to prevent legitimate users of a service
from using that service.
Correct:A

SUN   310-301 questions   310-301

NO.2 What cryptographic assurance is provided by public key cryptography that is NOT provided by
secret key cryptography?
A.integrity
B.confidentiality
C.authentication
D.non-repudiation
Correct:D

SUN   310-301 questions   310-301

NO.3 Which is a public key encryption algorithm?
A.AH
B.AES
C.RSA
D.PGP
E.IDEA
Correct:C

SUN   310-301 questions   310-301

NO.4 Which syslog facility level specification can be used to record unsuccessful attempts to su(1M)?
A.su.warning
B.cron.debug
C.kernel.alert
D.auth.warning
Correct:D

SUN   310-301 questions   310-301

NO.5 Which cryptographic assurances are provided by SSL?
A.confidentiality, integrity, availability
B.authorization, confidentiality, message integrity
C.confidentiality, client authentication, server authentication
D.authentication, confidentiality, access control, non-repudiation
Correct:C

SUN   310-301 questions   310-301

NO.6 Which evasion technique can NOT be detected by system integrity checks?
A.installing a rootkit
B.adding user accounts
C.abusing an existing user account
D.installing a loadable kernel module
Correct:C

SUN   310-301 questions   310-301

NO.7 Which command generates client key pairs and adds them to the $HOME/.ssh directory?
A.ssh-add
B.ssh-agent
C.ssh-keygen
D.ssh-keyadd
Correct:C

SUN   310-301 questions   310-301

NO.8 How do you distinguish between denial of service attacks and programming errors?
A.You cannot make this distinction.
B.You examine the audit events for the process.
C.You verify that the process user ID is that of a valid user.
D.You check the binary against the Solaris Fingerprint Database.
Correct:A

SUN   310-301 questions   310-301

NO.9 Which two services support TCP Wrappers by default in the Solaris 9 OE? (Choose two.)
A.inetd
B.rpcbind
C.sendmail
D.automountd
E.Solaris Secure Shell
Correct:A E

SUN   310-301 questions   310-301

NO.10 Which is uncharacteristic of a Trojan horse program used to escalate privileges?
A.It is installed in /usr/bin.
B.It is owned by a normal user.
C.It has the same name as a common program.
D.It contains additional functionality which the user does not expect.
Correct:A

SUN   310-301 questions   310-301

NO.11 User fred runs a program that consumes all of the system's memory while continuously
spawning a new program. You decide to terminate all of fred's programs to put a stop to this. What
command should you use?
A.kill -u fred
B.pkill -U fred
C.passwd -l fred
D.kill `ps -U fred -o pid`
Correct:B

SUN   310-301 questions   310-301

NO.12 Which command can customize the size for system log file rotation?
A.dmesg
B.logger
C.logadm
D.syslog
E.syslogd
Correct:C

SUN   310-301 questions   310-301

NO.13 Click the Exhibit button. Which connection demonstrates that telnet has been denied using TCP
Wrappers?
A.Connection 1
B.Connection 2
C.Connection 3
D.Connection 4
Correct:A

SUN   310-301 questions   310-301

NO.14 Which setting in the /etc/system file limits the maximum number of user processes to 100 to
prevent a user from executing a fork bomb on a system?
A.set maxuprc = 100
B.set maxusers = 100
C.set user_procs = 100
D.set max_nprocs = 100
Correct:A

SUN   310-301 questions   310-301

NO.15 Which two regular user PATH assignments expose the user to a Trojan horse attack? (Choose
two.)
A.PATH=/usr/bin:/bin
B.PATH=/usr/bin:/sbin:/usr/sbin
C.PATH=/usr/bin:/sbin:/usr/sbin:
D.PATH=.:/usr/bin:/sbin:/usr/sbin
Correct:C D

SUN   310-301 questions   310-301

NO.16 What command loads a DSA identity into a Solaris Secure Shell authentication agent?
A.ssh-add
B.ssh-agent
C.ssh-keyadd
D.ssh-keyload
E.ssh-load-identity
Correct:A

SUN   310-301 questions   310-301

NO.17 /var/adm/messages contains this output: Jan 28 21:23:18 mailhost in.telnetd[20911]: [ID 808958
daemon.warning] refused connect from ns.foo.com (access denied) Why was this line generated?
A.A user connecting from ns.foo.com failed to authenticate.
B.The user daemon is not allowed to log in from ns.foo.com.
C.A portscan was run against mailhost from ns.foo.com.
D.The TCP Wrapper configuration does not allow telnet connections from ns.foo.com.
Correct:D

SUN   310-301 questions   310-301

NO.18 Which two types of host keys are supported by Solaris Secure Shell? (Choose two.)
A.AES
B.RSA
C.DSA
D.DES
E.3DES
Correct:B C

SUN   310-301 questions   310-301

NO.19 Which threat can be mitigated by setting the Open Boot PROM security mode to full?
A.system panics
B.booting into single user mode
C.remotely accessing the console
D.logging in as root at the console
Correct:B

SUN   310-301 questions   310-301

NO.20 The system administrator finds a Trojaned login command using md5 and the Solaris
Fingerprint Database. What is true about the system administrator's incident response tasks?
A.The server must be rebuilt.
B.BSM will identify the attacker.
C.All other replaced system files can be identified using md5 and the Solaris Fingerprint Database.
D.All other replaced system files can be identified using md5 and the Solaris Fingerprint Database and
replaced with trusted versions.
Correct:A

SUN   310-301 questions   310-301

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NO.1 What are two drawbacks to ISPF green screen tools for mainframe application development?
(Choose two.)
A. inability to connect remotely to the mainframe
B. inability to create cross-platform projects
C. unappealing user interface
D. no support for multiple users
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 An enterprise organization manages their mainframe application development separately
from
their projects on other platforms. Their processes and tools are disconnected, often resulting in
delayed time to market. Which component of the IBM Integrated Solution for System z
Development provides a common infrastructure for source control and change management?
A. Rational Developer for System z
B. Rational Quality Manager
C. Rational Requirements Composer
D. Rational Team Concert
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer wants to simplify the process of connecting their traditional mainframe
applications
with Web 2.0 front-ends. Which feature of IBM Rational Developer for System z best meets their
needs?
A. EGL
B. CICS Service Flow
C. Service Component Architecture
D. Unit Test
Answer: A

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NO.4 What are two IBM software products packaged with z/OS in the IBM Rational Development
and
Test Environment for System z? (Choose two.)
A. JBoss Application Server
B. CICS Transaction Server
C. WebSphere Application Server
D. Cognos BI for Linux on System z
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 What are two ways snapshots are used in Rational Team Concert? (Choose two.)
A. to capture the current state of a project plan
B. to preserve the source code used for a given build
C. to provide atomic changes to sets of files
D. to show the amount of source control activity that happened over a given time
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Which statement is true about logical partitions (LPARs) in z/OS?
A. Each LPAR must have a dedicated processor.
B. Multiple small machines are more cost effective than a single large machine with multiple
LPARs.
C. Each LPAR must have a dedicated disk device.
D. Each LPAR runs its own operating system.
Answer: D

IBM   000-N20   000-N20

NO.7 Which feature of IBM Rational Developer for System z reduces host CPU usage by requiring
fewer
program compiles on z/OS?
A. SCA tooling
B. workstation syntax checking
C. integrated business development language
D. CICS Service Flow Modeler
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer wants the most comprehensive view of their asset information with the ability to
drill
down to the desired level of detail. Which IBM Rational Asset Analyzer interface should they use?
A. RESTful
B. ISPF client
C. Eclipse plug-in
D. browser-based
Answer: D

IBM   000-N20 test answers   000-N20

NO.9 Which benefit do customers receive by adding Rational Business Developer to the Integrated
Solution for System z Development?
A. personal z/OS testing environment for small-scale development
B. optimized Java development for IBM middleware
C. simplified development of Web 2.0 and SOA applications without Java language skills
D. quickly transform green screen applications into web or mobile device interfaces
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the purpose of the CICS Service Component Architecture capabilities of IBM Rational
Developer for System z?
A. to develop of a comprehensive web service that collects and processes data from multiple
sources
B. to offload development MIPS from the production server to a virtual z/OS environment on an
x86 Linux server
C. to manage application components that provide a common programming interface for service
invocation
D. to support multi-platform development with common tools for z/OS,Windows,UNIX,and Linux
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-452
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Storwize V7000 Technical Solutions V2)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 74 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 What is the IBM System Storage Easy Tier mode that is enabled for a storage pool with a single
tier of storage to collect usage statistics only for all the volumes in the pool?
A. Monitor
B. Easy tier
C. Automatic
D. Evaluation
Answer: D

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NO.2 During a demonstration, the technical specialist was asked to configure performance
monitoring
data collection for a Storwize V7000.
How should the technical specialist respond?
A. Basic performance monitoring is automatic, no configuration is necessary
B. Basic performance monitoring is only available through the mobile dashboard
C. Tivoli Storage Productivity Center is required to perform basic performance monitoring
D. Basic performance monitoring is automatic on the Storwize V7000 and detailed performance
monitoring is automatic on the Storwize V7000 Unified
Answer: A

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NO.3 In the Storwize V7000.,what is the Node Canister?
A. A group of 5 drives
B. The controller ERU
C. The power supply/fan ERU
D. Disk expansion interconnect ERU
Answer: B

IBM test answers   000-452   000-452 exam

NO.4 A customer is considering the replication of data between two Storwize V7000 systems using
an
existing, shared inter- site link. The technical specialist has been requested to investigate whether
or not this proposal is viable.
To begin the assessment what information should the specialist request for this opportunity?
A. The Recovery Point Objective and the application(s)
B. The application(s) and the amount of data to be replicated
C. The capacity of the inter-site link and the distance between sites
D. The amount of peak change data to be replicated and the capacity of the inter-site link
Answer: D

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NO.5 Storwize V7000 volume mirroring creates more resilience in which of the following methods?
A. Creates two copies of a storage pool
B. Mirror a volume between two separate Storwize V7000 systems
C. Allows both controller nodes to provide simultaneous read access
D. Migrates volumes between storage pools that have different extent sizes
Answer: D

IBM exam simulations   000-452   000-452 test answers   000-452   000-452

NO.6 Describe the key competitive advantage of IBM integrated Real-time Compression (RtC) over
EMC and HP compression technology.
A. Operates on active primary data
B. Achieves up to 40% better compression rates
C. Provides up to 200% performance improvement
D. Supports faster and more efficient data copies for online backup
Answer: A

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NO.7 What are two advantages of implementing Tivoli Storage FlashCopy Manager with Storwize
V7000 in a customer’s VMware environment? (Select two)
A. Migrate underutilized virtual machine images to lower tier storage
B. Software snapshots are deleted from primary datastore to help preserve space
C. Hardware snapshots can be utilized for virtual machine recovery and virtual volume restore
D. Tivoli Storage FlashCopy Manager uses vCenter APIs to integrate with Tivoli Storage Manager
for long term retention
E. Further storage reduction by moving VMDK files to a Tivoli Storage Productivity Center storage
pool for long term retention
Answer: B,C

IBM demo   000-452   000-452   000-452

NO.8 Customer requirements show only iSCSI and CIFS access will be required for a Storwize V7000
Unified solution. How many Fibre Channel ports will be utilized on the control enclosures?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.9 What statement is true regarding Snapshots in a Storwize V7000 Unified NFS environment?
A. Snapshots are space-efficient and writeable.
B. Snapshots use a dedicated/reserved Snapshot area.
C. Snapshots are space-efficient and use Copy-on-write.
D. Snapshots are space-efficient and use Redirect-on-write.
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is the preferred replication method that could achieve best application performance
with
reduced network requirements host performance that is independent of the replication, and RPO
higher (with default of 10 minutes)?
A. Metro Mirror
B. Global Mirror
C. Global Mirror with Change Volumes
D. SAN Volume Controller Split cluster
Answer: C

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Exam Code: LOT-403
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Forms 8.0 - Form Design and Development)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 105 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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Exam Code: 00M-237
Exam Name: IBM (IBM B2B Integration-Network-Managed File Transfer Sales Mastery Test v1 (000-M237))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 According to a study performed by IDC, customers who have implemented IBM Sterling File
Gateway have seen a ______ reduction in labor costs related to troubleshooting edge-based file
transfer activity
A. 65%
B. 50%
C. 38%
D. 90%
Answer: D

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NO.2 What can happen when data such as purchase order information is incorrectly re-keyed into
internal business systems and applications?
A. Decrease in inventory costs.
B. Late deliveries & penalties such as charge backs.
C. Increased customer satisfaction & sales.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following IBM/Sterling solutions provides "at rest" data encryption?
A. IBM Sterling Connect:Direct
B. IBM Sterling Secure Proxy
C. IBM Sterling File Gateway
D. IBM Sterling Control Center
E. All of the above.
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.redbooks.ibm.com/redbooks/pdfs/sg247927.pdf(page 247, Security, 3rd
bulleted point)

NO.4 Which of the following represents a good opportunity for IBM Sterling B2B Integrator?
A. An organization seeking secure, process-driven partner integration.
B. An organization seeking to extend their SOA and ESB infrastructures to B2B partners.
C. Customers with multiple data movement patterns and point solutions (silos) needing to
consolidate on a strategic platform.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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6. File transfer challenges are commonly seen in which industry?
A. Government
B. Telecommunications
C. Distribution and Logistics
D. Manufacturing
E. All of the above.
Answer: C

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7. IBM Sterling File Gateway is IBM's multi-protocol "_______" communication solution for
secure B2B file exchange.
A. edge
B. cloud
C. internal
D. ESB
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www-01.ibm.com/software/commerce/managed-file-transfer/products/filegatew
ay/(bulleted point #1)
8. Which of the following is NOT a feature of IBM Sterling File Gateway that helps customers
ensure that they are compliant with regulatory requirements?
A. Auditing capabilities.
B. Access controls for file transfer activity.
C. Secure file transfer protocols.
D. Encryption of files both in-flight and at rest.
E. All of the above features help customers ensure that they are compliant with regulatory
requirements.
Answer: A

IBM   00M-237   00M-237   00M-237
Reference:http://www-01.ibm.com/software/commerce/managed-file-transfer/products/filegatew
ay/features.html(topic: management and visibility, 4thbulleted point)

NO.5 How does IBM Sterling B2B Integrator achieve B2B Process Automation?
A. Using a proprietary scripting language.
B. By means of a visual workflow modeler.
C. Writing new Java code for each process.
D. Through manually routing messages.
Answer: A

IBM test questions   00M-237 original questions   00M-237
Reference:http://www.redbooks.ibm.com/redbooks/pdfs/sg247927.pdf(page 6, topic 1.3.4, last
paragraph)

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