2013年9月30日星期一

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Exam Code: EX0-110
Exam Name: EXIN (Foundation Bridge Exam IT Service Management ISO/IEC 20000)
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is the definition of quality according to ISO 9000?
A. Quality is when all features of a service which are agreed with the customer are being delivered to the
customer.
B. Quality is when the expectations from the customer to a certain service or product are being delivered
to the customer.
C. Quality is when the requirements and expectations of all stakeholders involved in the product lifecycle
are being fulfilled.
D. Quality is when the agreed service levels of a specific and defined service are met during morethen six
subsequent periods.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is a benefit of ISO/IEC 20000 certification?
A. It guarantees that all certified IT Service Management processes are at least audited by a registered
certification body once a year.
B. It shows that a company manages IT Services according to an independently audited quality standard.
C. It shows that a company takes quality seriously and that each service is independently audited before it
is being delivered.
D. It shows that the highest possible quality level has been achieved.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What shall the Service Level Agreements (SLAs) with the suppliers be aligned with?
A. the Service Level Plans
B. the Service Management Plans
C. the SLAs with the other parties
D. the SLAs with the customers
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following actions should be taken to ensure continual improvement of a Service
Management System?
A. Analyze and evaluate the existing situation to identify areas for improvement.
B. Analyze customer satisfaction and identify resulting actions.
C. Review the Service Management System at least annually.
D. Start an internal service organization evaluation.
Answer: A

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NO.5 When improving the IT Service Management system, what needs to be considered to ensure ongoing
compliance with the service providerWhen improving the IT Service Management system, what needs to
be considered to ensure on-going compliance with the service provider? corporate objectives /
requirements?
A. A competitor process managementsystemA competitor? process management system
B. Any standards defined by the company itself
C. The budget available to the Personnel Department
D. The time to update the process documentation
Answer: B

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Exam Code: SCNP
Exam Name: EXIN (SCNP Strategic Infrastructure Security)
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Total Q&A: 233 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 As per the guidelines in the ISO Security Policy standard, what is the purpose of the section on Physical
and Environmental Security.?
A. The objectives of this section are to avoid breaches of any criminal or civil law, statutory, regulatory or
contractual obligations and of any security requirements, and to ensure compliance of systems with
organizational security policies and standards.
B. The objectives of this section are to prevent unauthorized access, damage and interference to
business premises and information; to prevent loss, damage or compromise of assets and interruption to
business activities; to prevent compromise or theft of information and information processing facilities.
C. The objectives of this section are to provide management direction and support for information
security.
D. The objectives of this section are to maintain appropriate protection of corporate assets and to ensure
that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection.
E. The objectives of this section are to control access to information, to prevent unauthorized access to
information systems, to ensure the protection of networked services, and to prevent unauthorized
computer access.
Answer: B

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NO.2 If you encrypt or decrypt files and folders located on a remote computer that has been enabled for
remote encryption; the data that is transmitted over the network by this process is not encrypted. In order
to keep data encrypted as it is transmitted over the network, which of the following must you do?
A. You must implement EFS.
B. You must implement B2 security for Windows.
C. You must use IPSec.
D. You must use a recovery agent.
E. You must transmit the entire folder, not individual files.
Answer: C

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NO.3 On Monday, during a routine check of a users Windows workstation, you find the following program,
called regedit.bat on the users local hard drive:
Net localgroup administrators local /all Start regedit.exe Exit
What is this program capable of doing on this computer?
A. Nothing, the first line is coded wrong.
B. It will add the administrators to the local group
C. It will add the local user to all local groups
D. It will add the administrators to all local groups
E. It will add the local user to the administrators group
Answer: E

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NO.4 You have just become the senior security professional in your office. After you have taken a complete
inventory of the network and resources, you begin to work on planning for a successful security
implementation in the network. You are aware of the many tools provided for securing
Windows 2003 machines in your network. What is the function of Secedit.exe?
A. This tool is used to set the NTFS security permissions on objects in the domain.
B. This tool is used to create an initial security database for the domain.
C. This tool is used to analyze a large number of computers in a domain-based infrastructure.
D. This tool provides an analysis of the local system NTFS security.
E. This tool provides a single point of management where security options can be applied to a local
computer or can be imported to a GPO.
Answer: C

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NO.5 In order for your newly written security policy to have any weight, it must be implemented. Which of the
following are the three components of a successful Security Policy Implementation in an organization?
A. Policy Monitoring
B. Policy Design
C. Policy Committee
D. Policy Enforcement
E. Policy Documentation
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.6 Which of the following are symmetric encryption algorithms?
A. MD5
B. RSA
C. Diffie-Hellman
D. 3DES
E. AES
Answer: D,E

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NO.7 What is a problem with symmetric key cryptography?
A. It is slower than asymmetric key cryptography
B. Secure distribution of the public key
C. There is a lack of encryption protocols that can use symmetric key cryptography
D. Secure distribution of a secret key
E. Symmetric key cryptography is reserved for the NSA
Answer: D

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NO.8 In the process of public key cryptography, which of the following is true?
A. Only the public key is used to encrypt and decrypt
B. Only the private key can encrypt and only the public key can decrypt
C. Only the public key can encrypt and only the private key can decrypt
D. The private key is used to encrypt and decrypt
E. If the public key encrypts, then only the private key can decrypt
Answer: E

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NO.9 You have just downloaded a new file, called scnpfile.tar.gz. You are going to verify the file prior to
un-archiving the file. Which command do you need to type to un-compress the file, prior to unarchiving?
A. tar xvf scnpfile.tar.gz
B. tar -zxvf scnpfile.tar.gz
C. gunzip scnpfile.tar.gz
D. gunzip -xvf scnpfile.tar.gz
E. gunzip -zxvf scnpfile.tar.gz
Answer: C

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NO.10 During the configuration of your Linux system, you are working with the available drives in
thecomputer.
What syntax defines the First (Primary) IDE hard disk drive?
A. /dev/sda
B. /dev/fda
C. /dev/hd1
D. /dev/hda
E. /dev/fd1
Answer: D

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NO.11 You are configuring the permissions to a file, called file1, on your Linux file server. You wish to change
the permissions to remove the execute permission from the others and group. Which of the following
commands will complete this task?
A. umask x-og file1
B. umask og-x file1
C. chmod xog- file1
D. chmod x-og file1
E. chmod og-x file1
Answer: E

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NO.12 In the past it was, at times, difficult to locate current information on security vulnerabilities. What is the
name of the security communitys effort to create a comprehensive database of multiple vulnerabilities and
security tools?
A. Common Vulnerabilities and Exploits
B. Cataloged Venerations and Exposures
C. Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures
D. Cataloged Vulnerabilities and Exposures
E. Cataloged Vulnerabilities and Exploits
Answer: C

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NO.13 Recently, you have seen an increase in intrusion attempts and in network traffic. You decide to use
Snort to run a packet capture and analyze the traffic that is present. Looking at the example, what type of
traffic did Snort capture in this log file?
A. NetBus Scan
B. Trojan Scan
C. Ping Sweep
D. Port Scan
E. Ping Sweep
Answer: D

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NO.14 Recently, you have seen an increase in intrusion attempts and in network traffic. You decide to use
Snort to run a packet capture and analyze the traffic that is present. Looking at the example, what type of
traffic did Snort capture in this log file?
A. Windows 2000 Ping Request
B. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Request
C. Linux Ping Request
D. Linux Ping Response
E. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Response
Answer: B

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NO.15 You are discussing the design and infrastructure of the Internet with several colleagues when a
disagreement begins over the actual function of the NAP in the Internets design. What is the function of a
NAP in the physical structure of the Internet?
A. The NAP provides for a layered connection system of ISPs connecting to the backbone.
B. The NAP provides the actual connection point between a local user and the Internet.
C. The NAP provides the physical network with communication channels for the Internet and voice/data
applications.
D. The NAP provides a national interconnection of systems, called peering centers, to the NSPs.
E. The NAP provides for a connection point between an ISP and the backbone of the Internet.
Answer: E

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NO.16 You are aware of the significance and security risk that Social Engineering plays on your
company. Of the following Scenarios, select those that, just as described, represent potentially dangerous
Social
Engineering:
A. A writer from a local college newspapers calls and speaks to a network administrator. On the call the
writer requests an interview about the current trends in technology and offers to invite the administrator to
speak at a seminar.
B. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the receptionist. On the call the caller asks the
receptionist the normal business hours that the organization is open to the public.
C. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the purchaser of IT hardware and
software. On the call the caller lists several new products that the purchaser may be interested in
evaluating. The caller asks for a time to come and visit to demonstrate the new products.
D. An email, sent by the Vice President of Sales and Marketing, is received by the Help Desk asking to
reset the password of the VP of Sales and Marketing.
E. An email is received by the Chief Security Officer (CSO) about a possible upgrade coming from the ISP
to a different brand of router. The CSO is asked for the current network's configuration data and the
emailer discusses the method, plan, and expected dates for the rollover to the new equipment.
Answer: D,E

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NO.17 You are configuring the lines that control access to exported objects on your server running NFS. If you
have a directory called /Tech and you wish to export this directory to network 192.168.20.0/24, allowing
root access, and the permissions of read and write, which of the following lines will accomplish this?
A. (RW) no_root_squash /Tech 192.168.20.0/24
B. /Tech 192.168.20.0/24 (rw) no_root_squash
C. (RW) no_root_squash 192.168.20.0/24 /Tech
D. (RW)no_root_squash:/Tech 192.168.20.0/24
E. /Tech 192.168.20.0/24(rw) no_root_squash
Answer: E

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NO.18 As per the guidelines in the ISO Security Policy standard, what is the purpose of the section on
Business Continuity Planning?
A. The objectives of this section are to maintain appropriate protection of corporate assets and to ensure
that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection.
B. The objectives of this section are to provide management direction and support for information security.
C. The objectives of this section are to counteract interruptions to business activities and to critical
business processes from the effects of major failures or disasters.
D. The objectives of this section are to avoid breaches of any criminal or civil law, statutory, regulatory or
contractual obligations and of any security requirements, and to ensure compliance of systems with
organizational security policies and standards.
E. The objectives of this section are to control access to information, to prevent unauthorized access to
information systems, to ensure the protection of networked services, and to prevent unauthorized
computer access.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Often times attackers will run scans against the network to identify different network and operating
systems, and resources that are available. If an attacker runs scans on the network, and you are logging
the connections, which of the following represent the legitimate combination of packets that will be sent
between the attacker and target?
A. Attacker PSH-FIN Scan, Target RST-FIN Response
B. Attacker ACK Scan, Target NULL Response
C. Attacker NULL Scan, Target RST Response
D. Attacker SYN Scan, Target NULL Response
E. Attacker FIN Scan, Target RST Response
Answer: C,E

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NO.20 You have become the lead security professional for a mid-sized organization. You are currently
studying DNS issues, and configuration options. You come across the concepts of DNS Spoofing, and
investigate more. What is DNS Spoofing?
A. DNS Spoofing is when the DNS client submits a false DNS request to the DNS server, and the DNS
server responds with correct data.
B. DNS Spoofing is the DNS client submits a DNS request to the DNS server using a bogus IP address,
and the DNS server responds to the incorrect host.
C. DNS Spoofing is when a DNS Server responds to an unauthorized DNS client, providing that client with
name resolution.
D. DNS Spoofing is when a DNS client is forced to make a DNS query to an imposter DNS server, which
send the client to an imposter resource.
E. DNS spoofing is when a DNS server provides name resolution to clients that are located in a different
IP subnet than the server itself.
Answer: D

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NO.21 What type of cipher is used by an algorithm that encrypts data one bit at a time?
A. 64-bit encryption Cipher
B. Block Cipher
C. Stream Cipher
D. Diffuse Cipher
E. Split Cipher
Answer: C

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NO.22 To maintain the security of your network you routinely run several checks of the network
andcomputers.
Often you use the built-in tools, such as netstat. If you run the following command: netstat -e whichof the
following will be the result?
A. Displays all connections and listening ports
B. Displays Ethernet statistics
C. Displays addresses and port numbers in numerical form
D. Shows connections for the protocol specified
E. Displays per-protocol statistics
Answer: B

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NO.23 What is the name of the informational page that is relevant to a particular command in Linux?
A. Readme Page
B. Lnx_nfo Page
C. Man Page
D. X_Win Page
E. Cmd_Doc Page
Answer: C

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NO.24 To increase the security of your network and systems, it has been decided that EFS will be implemented
in the appropriate situations. Two users are working on a common file, and often email this file back and
forth between each other. Is this a situation where the use of EFS will create effective security, and why
(or why not)?
A. No, the security will remain the same since both users will share the same key for encryption.
B. Yes, since the file will be using two keys for encryption the security will increase.
C. No, the security will remain the same since both users will share the same key for decryption.
D. Yes, since the file will be using two keys for decryption the security will increase.
E. No, EFS cannot be used for files that are shared between users.
Answer: E

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NO.25 You are working on the authentication systems in your network, and are concerned with your legacy
systems. In Windows NT 4.0, before Service Pack 4 (SP4), there were only two supported methods of
authentication. What were those two methods?
A. NetBIOS
B. LM
C. NTLM
D. NTLMv2
E. Kerberos
Answer: B,C

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NO.26 When using the 3DES encryption ( C = EK1[DK2[EK1[P]]] ) , what is the function of C?
A. C is the text before encryption
B. C is the first encryption key
C. C is the second encryption key
D. C is the decryption key
E. C is the text after encryption
Answer: E

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NO.27 During a one week investigation into the security of your network you work on identifying the information
that is leaked to the Internet, either directly or indirectly. One thing you decide to evaluate is the
information stored in the Whois lookup of your organizational website. Of the following, what pieces of
information can be identified via this method?
A. Registrar
B. Mailing Address
C. Contact Name
D. Record Update
E. Network Addresses (Private)
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.28 Recently, you have seen an increase in intrusion attempts and in network traffic. You decide to use
Snort to run a packet capture and analyze the traffic that is present. Looking at the example, what type of
traffic did Snort capture in this log file?
A. Windows 2000 Ping Request
B. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Request
C. Linux Ping Request
D. Linux Ping Response
E. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Response
Answer: B

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NO.29 Attackers have the ability to use programs that are able to reveal local passwords by placing some kind
of a pointer/cursor over the asterisks in a program's password field. The reason that such tools can
uncover passwords in some Operating Systems is because:
A. the passwords are simply masked with asterisks
B. the etc/passwd file is on a FAT32 partition
C. the passwords are decrypted on screen
D. the password text is stored in ASCII format
E. the etc/passwd file is on a FAT16 partition
Answer: A

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NO.30 During the review of the security logs you notice some unusual traffic. It seems that a user has
connected to your Web site ten times in the last week, and each time has visited every single page on the
site. You are concerned this may be leading up to some sort of attack. What is this user most likely getting
ready to do?
A. Mirror the entire web site.
B. Download entire DNS entries.
C. Scan all ports on a web server.
D. Perform a Distributed Denial of Service attack through the Web server.
E. Allow users to log on to the Internet without an ISP.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: EX0-115
Exam Name: EXIN (IT Service Management Foundation based on ISO/IEC 20000)
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Total Q&A: 78 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Through which process does the implementation of new or changed services, including closure of a
service, need to be planned and approved.?
A. Business Relationship Management
B. Change Management
C. Release Management
D. Service Level Management
Answer: B

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NO.2 Different types of events are reported to the Service Desk. Which event is an incident?
A. Information about the rollout of a specific application
B. A notification that a new toner cartridge has just been installed in a printer
C. A report that the printer is not working
D. A request for the installation of a new bookkeeping package
Answer: C

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NO.3 One of the activities of Problem Management is the analysis of historical Incident and Problem data held
in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) in order to understand trends.
Which aspect of Problem Management accomplishes this?
A. Error Control
B. Identification of root causes
C. Proactive Problem Management
D. Problem Control
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is a Configuration Baseline?
A. A benchmark of the service provider's capability
B. A configuration audit report
C. A snapshot of the state of an IT Service or individual Configuration Item (CI) at a point in time
D. The change requests allocated to a release
Answer: C

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NO.5 Quality Management Systems can assist organizations in enhancing what?
A. Customer satisfaction
B. ISO/EC 20000
C. Relationship with third parties
D. Supplier satisfaction
Answer: A

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NO.6 What would increase the amount of detail in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?
A. Increasing the scope of the CMDB
B. Increasing the number of attributes of each Configuration Item (CI) in the CMDB
C. Increasing the number of records in the CMDB
D. Increasing the use of the CMDB
Answer: B

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NO.7 In recent months at a transport company with 1500 desktops, dozens of requests have been received
for expansion of the internal memory because its size has proven to be insufficient.
Which process should have prevented this from happening?
A. Capacity Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Availability Management
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is known as a temporary solution that enables the user to continue working?
A. Known Error
B. Request For Change (RFC)
C. Service Request
D. Workaround
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which process includes the responsibility of recovering the service as quickly as possible?
A. Availability Management
B. IT Service Continuity Management
C. Incident management
D. Problem Management
Answer: C

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NO.10 Deming proposed a system of continuous improvement.
Which four activities does this system involve?
A. Plan. Do. Check and Act
B. Plan. Do. Evaluate and Act
C. Plan. Perform. Audit and Improve
D. Plan. Perform. Evaluate and Act
Answer: A

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NO.11 What has to be included in a well defined process?
A. Expected outcomes
B. Functions
C. Statistical support
D. Timelines
Answer: A

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2013年9月29日星期日

ACI certification 3I0-008 exam questions and answers come out

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Exam Code: 3I0-008
Exam Name: ACI (ACI DEALING CERTIFICATE)
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Total Q&A: 320 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-29

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NO.1 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Making interest rate swap transactions subject to agreement on documentation:
A.Is recommended where the complications of the transaction warrant the practice.
B.Is strictly forbidden.
C.Is considered bad practice.
D.Must have senior management approval.
ANSWER: c

ACI   3I0-008   3I0-008   3I0-008 questions   3I0-008 test   3I0-008 original questions

NO.2 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
In the international market, a FRA in USD is usually settled with reference to:
A.BBA LIBOR
B.Fed funds
C.ISDA LIBOR
D.EURIBOR
ANSWER: a

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NO.3 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
The position delta of an in-the-money short put option is:
A.Between -0.5 and -1
B.-0.5
C.Between +0.5 and +1
D.+0.5
ANSWER: c

ACI   3I0-008   3I0-008   3I0-008 test questions

NO.4 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
What is the amount of the principal plus interest due at maturity on a 1-month (31-day) deposit of EUR 50
million placed at 3.67%?
A.EUR 50,152,916.70
B.EUR 50,155,849.30
C.EUR 50,158,013.90
D.EUR 50,161,888.90
ANSWER: c

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NO.5 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Which of the following will tend to have the higher yield?
A.Treasury bill
B.Repo against Treasury bill collateral
C.They have the same yield
D.Cannot say
ANSWER: b

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NO.6 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Although The Model Code discourages the extension of forward FX contracts at their historic rates, one of
the conditions required for this is:
A.Prior management approval has been sought.
B.They are executed within six months.
C.They are extended for not more than one year.
D.All of the above.
ANSWER: a

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NO.7 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Prior to expiration, an in-the-money option has:
A.Intrinsic value but no time value
B.Time value but no intrinsic value
C.Both time value and intrinsic value
D.Neither time value nor intrinsic value
ANSWER: c

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NO.8 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
What are the secondary market proceeds of a CD with a face value of EUR 5 million and a coupon of 3%
that was issued at par for 182 days and is now trading at 3% but with only 7 days remaining to maturity?
A.EUR 4,997,085.03
B.EUR 5,000,000.00
C.EUR 5,071,086.45
D.EUR 5,072,874.16
ANSWER: d

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NO.9 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Covered interest arbitrage is possible when:
A.The low interest rate currency depreciates
B.There is a large swing in the spot rate
C.The values of the forward points and of the interest rate differential between two currencies diverge
D.The interest rate differential widens rather than narrows
ANSWER: c

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NO.10 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
In case of a default on a repo by the seller:
A.The buyer can liquidate the collateral
B.The buyer has to liquidate the collateral
C.The buyer cannot liquidate the collateral until the seller is declared insolvent
D.A court is appointed to decide what happens to the collateral
ANSWER: a

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NO.11 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
If EUR/USD is 1.1025-28 and the 6-month swap is 112.50/113, what is the 6-month outright price?
A.1.1380-1.11405
B.1.11375-1.1141
C.1.09125-1.0915
D.None of these
ANSWER: b

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NO.12 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
What is the Overnight Index for GBP?
A.SONIA
B.STINA
C.LIBOR
D.EONIA
ANSWER: a

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NO.13 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
What is the ISO code for platinum
A.XAU
B.XAG
C.XPT
D.XPD
ANSWER: c

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NO.14 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Written confirmation is a function that can be done by:
A.Any dealer as long as he/she is not a party to the trade.
B.Staff in the back-office.
C.Staff in the dealing room who are not dealing.
D.Any staff outside the dealing room.
ANSWER: b

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NO.15 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Voice-brokers in spot FX are remunerated with:
A.Commission paid by both parties at rates agreed beforehand
B.A fee paid by the seller
C.Bid/offer spread
D.A share of the bid/offer spread
ANSWER: a

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NO.16 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Taking collateral to hedge the credit risk on a counterparty means that you have:
A.Eliminated credit risk
B.Eliminated market risk
C.Taken a guarantee from the issuer of the collateral
D.Taken on market, legal and operational risks
ANSWER: d

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NO.17 These are all the pirctures which this dumps will use. When you meet the questions, you can refer to
them by yourself.
A
B
C
D
E
F

NO.18 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
One of your major customers is visiting your bank and wishes to meet you and see the dealing room.
What is the Model Code recommendation?
A.There is no problem.
B.There is no problem provided the visitor is a member of your customers management and not a dealer
for the customer.
C.There is no problem with a short, one-off visit approved by management.
D.Non-treasury personnel and visitors should not be allowed into the dealing room.
ANSWER: c

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NO.19 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
What are some of the major objectives of The Model Code?
A.To clarify the roles of dealers, brokers and customers
B.To promote a high level of ethical, professional behaviour
C.To act as a guide in the absence of government regulation
D.All of the above
ANSWER: d

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NO.20 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Which of the following is issued by auction?
A.Treasury bill
B.CD
C.BA
D.USCP
ANSWER: a

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NO.21 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Which of the following currencies is quoted on an actual/365 basis for the calculation of interest on
interbank deposits in London?
A.EUR
B.JPY
C.GBP
D.CHF
ANSWER: c

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NO.22 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
You have done the following deals in spot USD/JPY:
Sold USD 5.0 million at 130.60
Bought USD 3.5 million at 130.20
Bought USD 2.0 million at 130.50
Sold USD 2.0 million at 130.55
What is your net position and average rate?
A.Short USD 1.5 million at 130.46
B.Long USD 1.5 million at 130.46
C.Short USD 1.5 million at 131.60
D.Long USD 1.5 million at 131.60
ANSWER: c

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NO.23 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
The seller of a floor:
A.Receives compensation if a reference interest rate falls below an agreed level
B.Pays compensation if a reference interest rate falls below an agreed level
C.Receives compensation if a reference interest rate rises above an agreed level
D.Pays compensation if a reference interest rate rises above an agreed level
ANSWER: b

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NO.24 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
If a counterparty's name is not acceptable to a lending bank, that bank:
A.Can revise the rate according to his credit position for the counterparty.
B.Should not revise the rate.
C.Can revise the rate but only with the consent of senior management.
D.Can revise the rate according to the credit rating of the counterparty
ANSWER: b

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NO.25 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
A 1-month (30-day) USCP with a face value of USD 5 million is quoted at a rate of discount of 2.31%.
How much is the paper worth?
A.USD 4,884,500.00
B.USD 4,990,375.00
C.USD 4,990.506.85
D.USD 4,990,393.49
ANSWER: b

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NO.26 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
It is now permissible in most markets for brokers to be owned by banks and other principals. Where there
is shared management, or a shareholding or other investment in a broker by a counterparty:
A.The broker is not obligated to reveal the connection provided Chinese Walls are in place.
B.The broker is not obligated to reveal the connection in the professional market.
C.The broker should advise the other counterparty of the connection.
D.The matter is covered in the Model Code.
ANSWER: c

ACI   3I0-008   3I0-008

NO.27 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
The extension of an off-market rate could have the following implications:
A.An unauthorised extension of credit to the counterparty.
B.Deferring a loss to a future date.
C.Deferring an income to a future date.
D.All of the above.
ANSWER: d

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NO.28 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Lending for 3 months and borrowing for 6 months creates a 3x6 forward-forward deposit. The cost of that
deposit is called:
A.Break-even rate
B.Implied forward rate
C.Forward-forward rate
D.All of the above
ANSWER: d

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NO.29 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Four banks provide you with quotes in CHF/SEK. Which is the best price for you to buy SEK?
A.5.5825
B.5.5820
C.5.5815
D.5.5830
ANSWER: d

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NO.30 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
The 180-day GBP/USD rate is bid 62 and the 90-day GBP/USD rate is bid 29.
What is the bid rate for 120 days, assuming straight-line interpolation?
A.33
B.42
C.27
D.40
ANSWER: d

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Exam Code: ICYB
Exam Name: IASSC (IASSC Certified Lean Six Sigma Yellow Belt)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-29

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NO.1 Training cost is $3,000 and a project required an initial investment of $12,000. If the project
yields
monthly savings of $1,800 beginning after 3 months, what is the payback period in months (before
money costs and taxes)?
A. 4.17
B. 8.33
C. 11.33
D. 28.28
Answer: C

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NO.2 When we assess the Voice of the Customer we are attempting to determine the gaps in our
processes between “what is” and __________________.
A. “What isn’t”
B. “What will make money”
C. “What will cost less”
D. “What should be”
Answer: D

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NO.3 The ROI for a project is a measurement metric that stands for Return on Investment and is one
of
the methods used to measure the success of a Lean Six Sigma project.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.4 Benefits and working conditions would be primarily the concern of which of the following?
A. Voice of the Customer
B. Voice of the Employee
C. Voice of the Business
D. Voice of the Process
Answer: B

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NO.5 In the expression Y = f(Xn) Y , the output, is the ___________ variable and Xn, the inputs, are
the
__________ variables.
A. Independent, dependent
B. Individual, multiple
C. Sole, multiple
D. Dependent, independent
Answer: D

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NO.6 When a process has proven itself to function at a Six Sigma level this means there are less than
________ defects per million opportunities.
A. 1.7
B. 2.6
C. 3.4
D. 10
Answer: C

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NO.7 Voice of the Customer is a Lean Six Sigma technique to determine the ___________ attributes
of
a product or service.
A. Desirable
B. Beneficial
C. Critical-to-Quality
D. Preferred
Answer: C

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NO.8 The DMAIC approach to problem solving stands for Define, __________, Analyze, Improve and
Control.
A. Manage
B. Measure
C. Memorize
D. Manipulate
Answer: B

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NO.9 Six Sigma refers to a process whose output has at least 95% of its data points within 6
Standard
Deviations from the Mean.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following would likely not be a CTQ (Critical-to-Quality) for the purchase of a
product?
A. Functionality
B. Durability
C. Dependability
D. None
Answer: D

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Exam Name: SPSS (IBM SPSS Modeler Professional Certification)
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Total Q&A: 73 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 Which nodes are best suited for revealing relationship between categorical (nominal, ordinal)
fields? (Select all that apply)
A. Means node
B. Matrix node
C. Distribution node
D. Table node
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which mode is not available In the Auto Numeric node?
A. Chaid
B. Logistic
C. Neural Net
D. Regression
Answer: C

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NO.3 Generally speaking, to modify values in columns of working data file, you would use nodes
from which palette or menu group?
A. Record Ops
B. Field Ops
C. Export
D. Sources
Answer: B

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NO.4 The set Random seed option on the sample node is required if you want to draw the same
random sample with the same records more than once.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which outlier treatment is not available in the Quality tab of the Data Audit output?
A. Coerce
B. Nullify
C. Recode
D. Discard
Answer: C

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Exam Code: CCA-470
Exam Name: Cloudera (Cloudera Certified Administrator for Apache Hadoop CDH4 Upgrade Exam (CCAH))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 87 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-29

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NO.1 Compare the hardware requirements of the NameNode with that of the DataNodes in a
Hadoop
cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1):
A. The NameNode requires more memory and requires greater disk capacity than the DataNodes.
B. The NameNode and DataNodes should the same hardware configuration.
C. The NameNode requires more memory and no disk drives.
D. The NameNode requires more memory but less disk capacity.
E. The NameNode requires less memory and less disk capacity than the DataNodes.
Answer: D

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NO.2 How does the NameNode know DataNodes are available on a cluster running MapReduce v1
(MRv1)
A. DataNodes listed in the dfs.hosts file. The NameNode uses as the definitive list of available
DataNodes.
B. DataNodes heartbeat in the master on a regular basis.
C. The NameNode broadcasts a heartbeat on the network on a regular basis, and DataNodes
respond.
D. The NameNode send a broadcast across the network when it first starts, and DataNodes
respond.
Answer: B

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NO.3 In HDFS, you view a file with rw-r--r-- set as its permissions. What does this tell you about the
file?
A. The file cannot be deleted by anyone but the owner
B. The file cannot be deleted by anyone
C. The file cannot be run as a MapReduce job
D. The file’s contents can be modified by the owner, but no-one else
E. As a Filesystem in Userspace (FUSE), HDFS files are available to all user’s on a cluster
regardless of their underlying POSIX permissions.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You have a cluster running with the FIFO scheduler enabled. You submit a large job A to the
cluster which you expect to run for one hour. Then, you submit job B to the cluster, which you
expect to run a couple of minutes only. Let’s assume both jobs are running at the same priority.
How does the FIFO scheduler execute the jobs? (Choose 3)
A. The order of execution of tasks within a job may vary.
B. When a job is submitted, all tasks belonging to that job are scheduled.
C. Given jobs A and B submitted in that order, all tasks from job A will be scheduled before all
tasks from job B.
D. Since job B needs only a few tasks, if might finish before job A completes.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 The failure of which daemon makes HDFS unavailable on a cluster running MapReduce v1
(MRv1)?
A. Node Manager
B. Application Manager
C. Resource Manager
D. Secondary NameNode
E. NameNode
F. DataNode
Answer: E

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NO.6 Which two features does Kerberos security add to a Hadoop cluster?
A. Authentication for user access to the cluster against a central server
B. Encryption for data on disk ("at rest")
C. Encryption on all remote procedure calls (RPCs)
D. User authentication on all remote procedure calls (RPcs)
E. Root access to the cluster for users hdfs and mapred but non-root acess clients
Answer: C,D

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10. Which three processes does HDFS High Availability (HA) enable on your cluster?
A. Automatically 'fail over' between NameNodes if one goes down
B. Write data to two clusterssimultaneously
C. Shut one NameNode down for maintenance without halting the cluster
D. Manually 'fail over' between NameNodes
E. Configure unlimited hot standby NameNode.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.7 Identify the function performed by the Secondary NameNode daemon on a cluster configured
to
run with a single NameNode.
A. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode performs a checkpoint operation on the files by
the NameNode.
B. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode is standby NameNode, ready to failover and
provide high availability.
C. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode performs deal-time backups of the NameNode.
D. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode servers as alternate data channel for clients to
reach HDFS, should the NameNode become too busy.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A client wants to read a file from HDFS. How does the data get from the DataNodes to the
client?
A. The NameNode reads the blocks from the DataNodes, and caches them. Then, the application
reads the blocks from the NameNode.
B. The application reads the blocks directly from the DataNodes.
C. The blocks are sent to a single DataNode, then the application reads the blocks from that Data
Node.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What does CDH packaging do on install to facilitate Kerberos security setup?
A. Automatically configure permissions for log files at $MAPPED_LOG_DIR/userlogs
B. Creates and configures you kdc with default cluster values.
C. Creates users for hdfs and mapreduce to facilitate role assignment.
D. Creates a set of pre-configured Kerberos keytab files and their permissions.
E. Creates directories for temp, hdfs, and mapreduce with correct permissions.
Answer: C

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