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Exam Code: VCP510
Exam Name: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VSphere 5)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 310 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Users are experiencing performance issues when updating their database hosted on a virtual machine.
The administrator determines that disk I/O is high across one of the HBAs on the ESXi host containing the
virtual machine.
What is the action will most likely correct the issue without significantly impacting other users or
datastores?
A. Manually configure the disk multipathing policy to Round Robin for the datastore
B. Migrate the virtual machine to an NFS datastore using Storage vMotion
C. Use Storage vMotion to migrate the virtual machine to a new VMFS5 datastore
D. Map additional LUNs to the ESXi host and extend the datastores
Answer: A

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NO.2 An administrator has created a virtual machine that will be accessed from a public kiosk. Management
has requested that the virtual machine be reset to a known state once a week or on demand if requested.
Which method is the simplest way to meet this requirement?
A. Configure the storage array to be vSphere aware and script routine array snapshot restores of the
datastore.
B. Implement a 3rd party imaging server and PXE boot the virtual machine off a static image.
C. Set the VMDKs of the virtual machine to be Independent-Nonpersistent and schedule restarts of the
virtual machine.
D. Create Nonpersistent disks for the virtual machine and set the guest OS to reboot once a week.
Answer: C

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NO.3 ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are running a
10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have been
deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual machine will not
power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on the host.
Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster from this
template? (Choose three.)
A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.4 What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.5 Which two conditions must exist on all hosts in the cluster if Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) is
used? (Choose two.)
A. The cluster must be enabled for DRS.
B. All hosts in the cluster must be running ESX/ESXi 3.5 Update 2 or later.
C. All hosts in the cluster must have hardware virtualization support enabled.
D. The cluster must be enabled for HA.
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 An administrator takes a vSphere snapshot of a virtual machine and applies an OS update. After
confirming the update the administrator cannot enable Fault
Tolerance on the virtual machine and suspects there are snapshots that have not been consolidated.
Which two operations can the administrator perform to verify consolidation is needed? (Choose two.)
A. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machines tab of the host.
B. Browse the datastore containing the vmdk files and look for files with the "-delta.vmdk" extension.
C. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machine summary tab.
D. Select and run the vSphere Cluster HealthCheck from the right-click menu of the cluster object.
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine and finds that
the current status is Not Protected.
What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be protected?
(Choose two.)
A. Stopped -Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM -The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual machine and
is not protected
C. Need Primary VM -The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual machine
cannot be generated.
D. Disabled -Fault Tolerance is disabled.
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 An administrator has deployed vCenter Data Recovery and wants the largest possible de-duplication
store. Which three storage options can be used? (Choose three.)
A. Two CIFS shares
B. Two RDMs on a FCP array
C. One NFS mount on the ESXi host and one RDMs on an iSCSI array
D. One CIFS share and one FCP RDM
E. Two NFS mounts on the ESXi host
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.9 An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp.
Which three options are available? (Choose three.)
A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.10 Under which two conditions can vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI) provide a performance
benefit? (Choose two.)
A. When a virtual disk has VMDK files stored on an NFS datastore.
B. When a virtual disk is created using the New Virtual Machine wizard.
C. When cloning a virtual machine with snapshots.
D. When a virtual disk is deleted.
Answer: A,D

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NO.11 An administrator has just finished deploying a vApp for a web service.
What three options are available to the administrator for IP allocation within the vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Transient
B. Fixed
C. DHCP
D. Bridged
E. NAT
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.12 An administrator is enabling Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) in a DRS cluster. The
administrator wants only hosts with the newest Intel processors added to the cluster.
Which setting satisfies this requirement?
A. The baseline with the most CPUs listed
B. The baseline with the fewest CPUs listed
C. Any baseline that contains Future Intel processors
D. Create a new baseline and add only the latest processor family
Answer: D

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NO.13 An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning indicates
that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for memory.
Which action can be taken to resolve this problem.?
A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on the datastore
alarm? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing)
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.15 Which VMware solution uses the security of a vSphere implementation and provides linked-clone
technology to virtual desktops?
A. VMware ACE
B. VMware View
C. VMware Workstation
D. VMware ThinApp
Answer: B

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button.
An administrator has deployed a new virtual machine on an ESXi 5.x host. Users are complaining of poor
performance on the application running on the virtual machine. Performance tools display the results
shown in the exhibit.
Which two tasks might improve the user experience? (Choose two.)
A. Add a vCPU to the virtual machine
B. Remove CPU affinity on the advanced CPU setting of the virtual machine
C. Migrate the virtual machine to another ESXi host
D. Remove the limit on the CPU settings of the virtual machine
Answer: A,D

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NO.17 What are three true statements about quiescing virtual machine snapshots?
(Choose three.)
A. vSphere snapshot quiescing only occurs on Windows guest OSes.
B. The quiescing operation is automatic with any snapshot.
C. The quiescing operation varies by guest OS.
D. Quiescing should occur before array-based snapshots to ensure consistency.
E. VMware Tools is required for quiescing to be successful.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.18 Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.xhost? (Choose two.)
A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.
Answer: B,C

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NO.19 An administrator is working to implement Storage Profiles in their environment.
Which two ways can storage capabilities be generated? (Choose two.)
A. They are generated by Datastore Clusters as LUNs are added to the cluster.
B. They are automatically determined by the Storage Profile when it is created.
C. They can be retrieved from the array through the VMware APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA)
D. They can be manually generated by the administrator.
Answer: C,D

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NO.20 Which two conditions will prevent a virtual machine from being successfully migrated using Storage
vMotion? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine has an RDM.
B. The virtual machine has Fault Tolerance enabled.
C. The virtual machine is running on a vSphere 5.x Standard host.
D. The virtual machine has a disk stored on an NFS datastore.
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: VCAP5-DCD
Exam Name: VMware (VMware Certified Advanced Professional 5 - Data Center Design (VCAP5-DCD))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 279 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Based on the information in the high-level design extract for question 2, which type of data
store would be required?
A. VMFS
B. NFS
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Because fault tolerance would be the only VMware technology that would meet the
technicalrequirements, VMFS is the only choice here. Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical &
Physical Approaches

NO.2 A(n) _____________ is an item that is taken to be true in the design phases but has not been
tested prior to execution.
A. requirement
B. constraint
C. assumption
D. risk
Answer: C

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Explanation:
An assumption could impact your design. It is good to ensure that project team and widerbusiness
are aware of assumptions and that they are agreed and validated as part of the design
considerationprocess. Chapter 2, Gathering Information and Spotting the Gaps

NO.3 Only a software vendor develops a standard process or configuration.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A best practice is based on experience with delivering a solution.
A new product will have limitedbest-practice information except for vendor- or
vendor-partner-based recommendations.
The longer atechnology is used in a community, the more potential success; therefore, best
practices may berecommended by non-vendor-related people.
It is up to a designer to validate this information rather thanignore it straightaway. Chapter 6,
Validation, Thoughts, and Processes
19. A logical diagram shows vendor-specific information.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A logical diagram shows the high-level components of a design or platform. It may
includedescriptions such as data flow and entity relationships.
However, it does not show specific vendors (such asDell or HP). Chapter 2, Creating the design
20. Which of the following vSphere cluster technologies would meet the application
requirements specified in the high-level design extract for question 2?
A. FT
B. HA
Answer: A

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Explanation:
vSphere HA would need to wait at least 10 seconds before a restart would be possible. Thiswould
not meet requirements. In the event of a restart, it could be possible to be without the application
feeddatabase for about 15 minutes. VMware FT would enable the service to be provided without
additionalredevelopment. Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical Approaches

NO.4 You are the technical designer for a vSphere platform transformation project. After
conducting SME interviews and using various platform information-gathering methods, you have
created a high-level design document.
This document specifies the following:
Requirements:
R1. The solution must not have a single point of failure.
R2. Production applications must not have an outage of more than 10 seconds.
R3. Data must be based in the UK.
R4. There is a 7-year retention policy for contracts.
R5. Applications should support existing and developing workloads for the next 3 years' growth.
Spec of servers:
Web 1 vCPU, 2 GB RAM, 100 GB storage App 1 vCPU, 4 GB RAM, 100 Gb storage
DB 2 vCPU, 16 GB RAM, 750 Gb storage
At a late stage in the software development life cycle of a production application developed inhouse,
an unfortunate issue was identified when the application was deployed to the production vSphere
cluster. The production core stacked switch has capacity issues, and this is having a serious impact
on all applications for which the switch is providing network services. Within the test system, the
application works as intended in the single test VLAN and with a single-host configuration.
Which of the following could be tried to help in this situation, from a vSphere perspective? (Choose
two)
A. Redevelop the application for a virtual platform
B. Place the application into a single-vApp network
C. Add DRS rules to keep network traffic within the same host, where possible
D. Configure network I/O control
Answer: B,D

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Explanation:
If you limit the application traffic to a specific dedicated network (that is, a separate VLAN) andusing
enforced DRS affinity rules, the application traffic will not traverse the ESXi host's physical
networkinterfaces. This will ensure that the impact of the application is minimized, while also
ensuring that theapplication itself is not limited. The application servers already have vCPU settings.
This suggests that the system has already beingvirtualized in both types of environments. Network
I/O control could be useful in the event of contention, but therole of a designer would be to plan to
prevent contention where possible; other options would be morebeneficial. In addition,
Requirement 5 specifies that the system should work with workloads over the next 3years. Network
I/O control would suggest contention very early in the platform history. Chapter 4, NetWork -
Logical and Physical Design to allow applications to flow

NO.5 A logical design can contain which of the following? (Choose three)
A. BIOS settings
B. Data flow
C. Key component relationships
D. High-level diagrams
E. Server host names
Answer: B,C,D

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Explanation:
A logical diagram can be used to show service components and how they relate to each other.
Alogical diagram is high level in nature and is independent of the hardware used for a solution.
Chapter 2, Presenting the Data Gathered

NO.6 A best practice can change over time.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A best practice is based on experience with delivering a solution.
A new product will have limitedbest-practice information except for vendor- or
vendor-partner-based recommendations.
The longer atechnology is used in a community, the more potential success; therefore, best
practices can change overtime.
Chapter 6, Validation, Thoughts, and Processes

NO.7 You are a technical consultant designing a solution for an online retail company. The project
vision is to deploy a hybrid cloud, with the internal team developing the website on internal
infrastructure and migrating production-ready applications to a hosting provider. The project is
expected to ease deployment and require less infrastructure capital expenditure-without lowering
application quality.
Which of the following is a risk to the project?
A. The solution must adhere to ISO 27001.
B. Change control of the hosting vCloud platform is not under full control of the internal business.
C. The hosting provider outsources the platform support to the platform vendor.
D. The applications to be deployed on the production hosts are not fully developed, although a beta
exists.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
The technical design process enables the platform designer to work in a methodical way and
withothers who have similar objectives. A risk is that a project item could potentially prevent the
vision or aspectsof it (requirements) from being created. Chapter 1, The Technical Design Process

NO.8 Based on the information in the high-level design extract from question 2, what storage
protocol is unsuitable?
A. NFS
B. iSCSI
C. FC
Answer: A

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Explanation:
The requirements state that the application uptime requirements would not be met if using vSphere
HA alone. vSphere HA would invoke a restart of guest virtual machines after at least 10 seconds.
VMware fault tolerance would meet the uptime requirements; a failover would result in zero
downtime of theapplication. This technology can be used only with VMFS; therefore, NFS cannot be
used in this design. Chapter 4, NetWork - Logical and Physical Design to allow applications to flow

NO.9 You are working on a hybrid cloud project, where production applications (yet to be fully
developed) are to be deployed. Which of the following is a project requirement?
A. The production data must be in the UK at all times.
B. The hosting partner provides sufficient resources without overcommitment to support
application load.
C. The hosting provider meets uptime expectations.
D. The development team provides the software on time.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A requirement is a definable and measurable project item. It must be part of the delivery, and
itsremoval cannot be justified. Chapter 2, Definitions of Key Terms

NO.10 Storage DRS is enabled by default.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical Approaches

NO.11 A project requirement _______________
A. must be achieved
B. can be set as aspirational but may never be achieved
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A project requirement is a specific deliverable that the business has said must be provided at
theend of a project.
It must always be achieved. Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical Approaches

NO.12 Storage DRS can be enabled and can balance I/O levels based on _______________
A. real-time stats
B. historical stats
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Storage DRS can balance I/O by using storage vMotion. This would be based on historical valuesfor a
period of time.
Storage DRS would make decisions based on these figures. If the system were using realtimestats,
the machines could potentially migrate a lot more. This could have an effect on the latency
figuresfor some systems. The larger historical sampling in storage DRS allows the system to make a
decision withlimited risk of impacting I/O-unlike moving a virtual machine over and over again.
Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical Approaches

NO.13 A DR project requires a recovery time objective (RTO) of 4 hours and has a recovery point
objective (RPO) of 2 hours. The system fails at 8 p.m. on a Sunday evening. At what time is the
application expected to be available to the end users?
A. Midnight
B. 10 p.m.
C. 2 a.m.
D. 11 p.m.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
The recovery time objective (RTO)-also known as the return to operation-is the amount of timeit
takes to restore a service after a failure has taken place. The recovery point objective (RPO) is the
point intime to which the system needs to be restored following a failure.
Chapter 3, RTO, RPO, and All That Stuff?

NO.14 You are a virtualization consultant working on a DR project. You have proposed a solution that
uses SAN replication technology to replicate production virtual machine files. This meets the cold
standby requirement.
Which of the following could be a design constraint?
A. The hardware currently being used in the datacenter is out of support.
B. The company is undecided about the choice of centralized storage to be used in the enterprise.
C. The company is at the end of year 1 of a 3-year contract for the point-to-point link between Site A
and Site
D. This link is currently 10 MB.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
An item from the current state analysis that would restrict or change a design choice is potentiallya
constraint. Such factors can limit a design and in some cases prevent the realization of a project
vision. Chapter 2, Gathering Information and Spotting the Gaps

NO.15 The vCenter database is powered off ungracefully, along with a three cluster nodes in a
separate cluster.
Will the failed existing ESXi host nodes restart correctly using Auto Deploy?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Auto Deploy enables an untrained IT professional to increase capacity while ensuring quality
andconsistency within a cluster.
However, there is a dependency on the vCenter server and Auto Deploy serverroles at different
times.
In this case, the ESXi hosts have already booted successfully.
This means that allsubsequent reboots will be controlled using configuration from the Auto Deploy
server, not vCenter.
If thevCenter database is impacted, the ESXi hosts will automatically restore.
Even in the event of no vCenteravailability, hosts will use the last-known copy of a distributed switch
or the configured vSphere switch.
Chapter X, Putting it all together

NO.16 In the project life cycle, the ____________ defines the vision.
A. IT architect
B. software vendor
C. business
Answer: C

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Explanation:
By reviewing the current configuration of a system and mapping the final status of components
asdescribed in the vision, the business identifies the gap between the two. A gap state analysis is a
review of theitems or tasks that are required to progress between the stages. Such an analysis is
useful in creatingmilestone plans, implementation orders, and so on. Chapter 2, Gathering
Information and Spotting the Gaps

NO.17 You are a VMware architect employed to design and build application environments and the
underlying platform for a software development company. The company is using a "devops"
approach and has engaged with you at the beginning of the first planning meeting/pre-sprint.
The software has yet to be written. However, you have some high-level specifications that are
subject to change at each of the early meetings.
The ______ is more logical for virtual machine sizing.
A. predictive sizing approach based on current software
B. adaptive sizing approach
Answer: B

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Explanation:
There are two types of scaling approaches in virtual platforms: adaptive and predictive.
Bothapproaches are usable; however, a designer must work out which is the best approach for
each project.
The adaptive approach to guest virtual machine design is a major advantage that virtualization
technologybrings to a datacenter. It allows a guest virtual machine to be created initially on a few
metrics or high-levelrequirements (such as a limited budget) and scaled (that is, grown, not shrunk)
through the virtual machine lifecycle. In many cases, this scaling can be performed hot/live without
outage/downtime to the runningapplications. The predictive approach, on the other hand, requires
more planning and research, and you must know themetrics before deployment. The advantage
here is that once the virtual machine has been deployed, onlyapplication maintenance is required.
The application requirements are known. Chapter 5, Design Approaches

NO.18 When designing a storage platform, which of the following should be considered as part of
the overall design?
A. Capacity
B. I/O requirements of the applications to be supported
C. Disk latency tolerance
D. Growth rate
E. All of the above
Answer: E

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Explanation:
A storage platform logical design requires in-depth analysis of factors that can affect applications. In
the case of storage, aspects that relate to the physical layer-such as the amount of usable space
requiredfor services; the size, number, and speed of disks; and how fast the data is being
produced-could have asubstantial impact to the storage platform. Chapter 4, Storage Design - The
Logical & Physical Approaches

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Exam Code: TB0-116
Exam Name: Tibco (TIBCO Enterprise Message Service 6 Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 134 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Which two statements are true about JMS local transactions? (Choose two.)
A. Closing a transacted session commits its transaction.
B. Session interface provides commit and rollback methods.
C. Consumed messages are acknowledged uponsession.commit.
D. Consumed messages are recovered and redelivered uponsession.commit.
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 The following diagram illustrates an enterprise with one-hop zones connecting all the servers in each of
several cities in a fully-connected graph. Zone TK connects all the servers in Tokyo; zone NY connects all
the servers in New York; zone PA connects all the servers in Paris. In addition, the multi-hop zone WO
connects one server in each city. Which three statements are true when a client of server TK3 produces a
message? (Choose three.)
A. When the message reaches PA1, it crosses into zone PA.
B. When the message reaches TK1, it will cross into zone PA.
C. TK1 forwards the message to NY1, which in turn forwards it to PA1.
D. The message will travel one hop to each of the other Tokyo servers.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 A connection factory is configured as follows: url=tcp://A:7222,tcp://B:7222
connect_attempt_count=2 reconnect_attempt_count=4 Host A is not available. After the client connects to
host B, host B crashes and remains down. How many more times will the client try to connect with host A?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
E. 6
F. 8
Answer: D

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NO.4 Given the following set of values: ?sess is a Session object ?dest is a Destination object ?nolocal is a
boolean variable What is the correct way to create a message consumer with a selector?
A. String selector = "JMSCorrelationID=3";
MessageConsumer consumer = sess.createConsumer(dest,selector,nolocal);
B. String selector = "JMSCorrelationID='3'";
MessageConsumer consumer = sess.createConsumer(dest,selector,nolocal);
C. String selector = "JMSCorrelationID='3'";
MessageConsumer consumer = sess.createConsumer(dest, nolocal, selector);
D. String selector = " 'JMSCorrelationID'='3'";
MessageConsumer consumer = sess.createConsumer(dest, selector, nolocal);
Answer: B

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NO.5 What are two allowed connection factory types with TIBCO EMS?
A. both
B. xaboth
C. generic
D. xageneric
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 What are two valid TIBCO EMS Administrator Tool commands? (Choose two.)
A. set server ft=enabled
B. set server routing=enabled
C. set server authorization=enabled
D. set serverdetailed_statistics=NONE
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 Which two sets of commands successfully create a queue connection factory called fact with the URL
pointing to localhost:7222 on the TIBCO EMS Server? (Choose two.)
A. create factory fact queue
addprop factory fact url=tcp://7222
setprop factory fact url
B. create factory fact queueurl=tcp://7222
C. create factory queue fact
setprop factory fact url=tcp://localhost7222
D. create factory fact queue
addprop factory fact url=tcp://localhost:7222
E. create factory fact queue
addprop factory fact url=tcp://localhost:7222
setprop factory fact url
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 Given the configuration in the acl.conf file: TOPIC=topic.sample1 USER=Bob PERM=subscribe
TOPIC=topic.* Group=engineering PERM=publish,subscribe Which statement is true if Bob is a member
of the engineering group?
A. Bob can only subscribe to topic.sample1.
B. Bob can publish and subscribe to only topic.sample1.
C. Bob can publish and subscribe to both topic.sample1 and topic.sample2.
D. Bob can publish to only topic.sample2 but can subscribe to both topic.sample1 and
topic.sample2.
E. Bob can publish to only topic.sample1 but can subscribe to both topic.sample1 and
topic.sample2.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which two statements are true about access control and bridges? (Choose two.)
A. A bridge automatically has permission to send to its target destination(s).
B. Message producers must have access to a destination to send messages to that destination.
C. ACLs must be added to thebridges.conf file if the access control is enabled for any bridged destination.
D. A message producer sending messages to a bridged destination must also have access to the target
destination(s) defined on the bridge.
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 What action is taken when the command purge all queues foo.* is sent on the TIBCO EMS
Administrator Tool?
A. All messages in all queues are deleted.
B. All messages present in the queue called foo.* are deleted.
C. All user-created queues whose names match the pattern foo.* are deleted.
D. All messages present in all the queues whose names matched the pattern foo.* are deleted.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which three message delivery modes are valid for TIBCO EMS? (Choose three.)
A. PERSISTANT
B. NON_PERSISTENT
C. RELIABLE_DELIVERY
D. CERTIFIED_DELIVERY
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.12 Which two mappings of JMS header fields to TIBCO Rendezvous data types are correct? (Choose
two.)
A. JMSType to TIBRVMSG_U8
B. JMSTimestamp to TIBRVMSG_U64
C. JMSDeliveryMode to TIBRVMSG_U8
D. JMSRedelivered to TIBRVMSG_STRING
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 A TIBCO EMS Server has the following configuration in the stores.conf and queues.conf
files:stores.conf
[filestore-1] type=file file=filestore1.db mode=async
[filestore-2] type=file file=filestore2.db mode=sync queues.conf > store=filestore-1 queue1
store=filestore-2 Message swapping is enabled.
What happens when NON_PERSISTENT messages are published on queue1?
A. All the published messages are stored in filestore-2.
B. All the published messages are stored in filestore-1.
C. Messages are moved to filestore-1 when the server reaches certain memory limits.
D. Messages are moved to filestore-2 when the server reaches certain memory limits.
Answer: D

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NO.14 A TIBCO EMS Server (mystore) has the following configuration in the stores.conf and queues.conf
files: stores.conf [mystore] type=file file=mystore.db mode=sync [mystore] type=dbstore
dbstore_driver_url=jdbc:sqlserver://sqlsrv_1:3415;databaseName=sysmeta
dbstore_driver_username=admin dbstore_driver_password=admin123 queues.conf queue1
store=mystore Which statement is true when PERSISTENT messages are published to queue1?
A. The server decides at runtime which store to use.
B. The server picks themystore of file type because it was configured first.
C. The server fails to start because there are two stores configured with the same name.
D. The server picks themystore of database type because that overrides the previously configured
filestore.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Server R defines a global queue named Q1. R is also the owner of Q1. Servers P and S define routed
queues Q1@R. The servers P, R, and S are connected by routes. Which two statements are true?
(Choose two.)
A. When a message is sent from server P to queue Q1, P forwards the message to the home queue on
server R.
B. Messages are available to local and remote consumers even before the message reaches the home
queue.
C. If Server P or the route connection from P to R fails, a consumer application of server P will not be able
to receive messages from Q1 until the servers resume communication.
D. When a message is sent from server S to Q1 and the route is not connected, the message is not
delivered, and the client application receives the exception DESTINATION_NOT_AVAILABLE.
Answer: A,C

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NO.16 Which three statements are true about using Third-Party JNDI Naming/Directory Services with TIBCO
EMS? (Choose three.)
A. Destinations cannot be retrieved from third-party naming or directory services.
B. To use a third-party directory service, you must have a JNDI provider for that specific type of service.
C. For third-party services, the only prerequisite is that the objects must have previously been stored
there.
D. EMS supports the storage and retrieval ofConnectionFactories in third-party naming or directory
services.
E. The objects physically stored by EMS coming from a third-party naming/directory service are serialized
objects.
F. The synchronization of administered objects between the EMS Server and the foreign
naming/directory services is automatic.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.17 What are two valid queue properties? (Choose two.)
A. export
B. channel
C. exclusive
D. maxRedelivery
Answer: A,B

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NO.18 Which operations ensure that the user usr gets permission to only subscribe to a topic tpc and browse
the queue que?
A. add memberusr grp
grant queue que grp browse
grant topic tpc usr subscribe
B. add membergrp usr
grant queue que usr browse
grant topic tpc grp subscribe
C. add memberusr grp
grant queue que usr browse
grant topic tpc usr subscribe
D. add membergrp usr
grant queue que usr browse
grant topic tpc grp subscribe,publish
Answer: B

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NO.19 The mismatched bandwidth between a message producer and consumer can be solved by setting
which property in the TIBCO EMS configuration?
A. multicast
B. flow_control
C. msg_swapping
D. max_msg_memory
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which two statements are true about a fault-tolerant configuration of TIBCO EMS where the primary
server heartbeat has stopped? (Choose two.)
A. The backup server waits for its activation interval.
B. The backup server tries to retrieve the information from shared storage.
C. The backup server assumes control if theft_weight parameter is equal to 1.
D. Ifft_activation = ft_heartbeat x 5, the backup server becomes the primary server.
E. Theserver_timeout_server_connection parameter is used by the backup server before
attempting a switchover.
Answer: A,B

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Exam Code: TB0-122
Exam Name: Tibco (TIBCO BusinessEvents 5 Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Which TIBCO BusinessEvents add-on software enables queries using a language that is SQL-like?
A. Decision Manager
B. Event Stream Processing
C. Views
D. Data Modeling
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which three statements about a CDD are true? (Choose three.)
A. A CDD can be associated with only one Object Management type at any given time.
B. Deployment requires both a CDD and the project.
C. Deployment requires both CDD and EAR files.
D. A project can have a one-to-many relationship with a CDD.
E. A CDD needs to be rebuilt when a new rule is added to the project.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 Which two functions does the studio-tools.exe utility provide? (Choose two)
A. Imports version 2.x projects
B. Imports version 3.x projects
C. Analyzes decision tables
D. Validates decision tables
E. Exports decision tables to Microsoft Excel
F. Imports decision tables from Microsoft Excel
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 Which statement is true about rules?
A. To assert a new set of concept instances it must be returned as arrays of objects from a rule
B. Executing a rule action may prevent the execution of other rules matching the criteria.
C. Returning an event instance from a rule sends the event to its default destination.
D. All rules matching the conditions at the given time will be triggered in parallel.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two channels represent configurable physical connections to a resource? (Choose two.)
A. JMS
B. FTP
C. HTTP
D. Local
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 In Cache Object Management settings, what does the property cache Agent Quo rum specify?
A. The number of members in the cluster that hold the backup data
B. The size of the limited cache
C. The minimum number of storage-enabled nodes that must be active in the cluster at startup
D. The maximum size of the object table cache
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which file must be configured with system-level settings before the TIBCO BusinessEvents engine
starts?
A. TRA
B. CDD
C. Site Topology
D. be-engine.xml
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two JMS message types are supported by TextMessageSerializer? (Choose two.)
A. MapMessage
B. BytesMessage
C. StreamMessage
D. TextMessage
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 Which object management type should be used when cacheLoadconceptById () has been defined
explicitly to load objects?
A. In-memory
B. Cache only
C. Cache + Memory
D. Berkeley DB
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which three TIBCO BusinessEvents objects can be stored in cache servers? (Choose three.)
A. Scorecards
B. Global Variables
C. Rule Functions
D. Concepts
E. Events
F. Rules
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.11 Which two statements are true about a new installation of TIBCO BusinessEvents? (Choose two.)
A. An existing Eclipse installation can be used.
B. An existing Eclipse installation cannot be used.
C. TIBCO BusinessEvents can be installed for use with TIBCO Business Studio business modeling
software.
D. TIBCO BusinessEvents cannot be installed for use with TIBCO Business Studio business modeling
software.
Answer: A,C

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NO.12 Concept A contains Concept B. Concept A is using Cache Only mode of object management.
Which object management mode is recommended for Concept B to use?
A. Memory Only
B. Memory Only or Cache + Memory or Cache Only
C. Memory Only or Cache Only
D. Cache + Memory or Cache Only
Answer: D

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NO.13 How do you override the default event for a JMS destination?
A. Map incoming messages directly to an event in TIBCO BusinessEvents
B. Map incoming messages only through the_ns_field in the message
C. Map incoming messages only through the_nm_fieldinthemessage
D. Map incoming messages through two fields (_ns_,_nm_) in the message
Answer: D

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NO.14 When does an RTC cycle end.?
A. When an external action causes changes to the RETE network
B. When TIBCO BusinessEvents builds (or refreshes) a rule action agenda
C. When a rule action is executed
D. When the rule action agenda is empty
Answer: D

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NO.15 What are three features of Pattern Matcher? (Choose three.)
A. The Pattern service can be started and stopped anytime inside the engine,
B. The Pattern service can only be run inside an Inference agent.
C. The Pattern service starts automatically when the engine starts.
D. The Pattern service can run in Inference agent or Query agent.
E. Each agent has a separate instance of the Pattern service.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.1 The Volume View window in VEA displays the characteristics of the volumes on the disks. After
selecting a volume or disk group in VEA, how is the Volume View window displayed?
A. Tools -> Volume View
B. Tools -> Volume -> View
C. Actions -> Volume -> View
D. Actions -> Volume View
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are analyzing the output of the vxdisk alldgs list command. There are no entries in the DISK and
GROUPcolumns; however, you see "online" in the output of the STATUS column. Which three explain the
"online" status of the disk in this scenario? (Choose three.)
A. The disk is in the free disk pool.
B. The disk has been initialized or encapsulated.
C. The disk is NOT currently assigned to a disk group.
D. The disk is currently deported on another system.
Answer: ABC

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NO.3 What are three advantages of a properly configured traditional mirrored volume layout? (Choose
three.)
A. improved reliability and availability
B. decreases the need for Volume Manager disks
C. improved read performance
D. fast recovery through logging
Answer: ACD

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NO.4 You have used the vxprint command with the appropriate options to save information about the volume
layouts on your system. Now, you want to use vxprint to provide useful information that can be used later
as input for the vxmake command to help rebuild your volume configurations. Which option must be used
with vxprint?
A. -r
B. -t
C. -a
D. -m
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which three plex types are valid in Volume Manager? (Choose three.)
A. complete
B. partial
C. log
D. sparse
E. partition
Answer: ACD

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NO.6 Which three are characteristics of a disk group? (Choose three.)
A. collection of Volume Manager disks
B. eases the use of resources in a high availability environment
C. allows Volume Manager objects to span multiple disk groups
D. represents a management and configuration boundary
Answer: ABD

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NO.7 In order to resize an existing volume and its file system in Volume Manager while it remains online,
the file system must be _____.
A. in the bootdg disk group
B. checked before the process
C. shared across disk groups
D. mounted during the process
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which command is used to move the contents of the volumes from one disk to another?
A. vxremove
B. vxevac
C. vxdg move
D. vxdg evac
Answer: B

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NO.9 You have a disk group named testdg, which you want to rename to engdg. To rename the disk group
from the command line, you __________.
A. must destroy the disk group and then re-create the disk group using the new name
B. must use the vxdg change command, which performs a deport and an import in a single step
C. use vxdg deport followed by vxdg import, and the volumes are automatically started in the disk group
after the import
D. use vxdg deport followed by vxdg import, then you must manually start volumes in the disk group by
using the vxvol command
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which two virtual objects are components of a Volume Manager volume? (Choose two.)
A. VM disk
B. subdisk
C. plex
D. physical disk
Answer: BC

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NO.11 Which area of a disk is used by Volume Manager to store information such as disk headers,
configuration copies, and kernel logs?
A. the public region
B. the private region
C. the virtual region
D. the CDS region
Answer: B

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NO.12 You want to track changes to files and directories in a file system to improve performance of a search
engineapplication. Which VERITAS File System feature do you enable?
A. the intent log
B. the file change log
C. the object location table file
D. the quotas file
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is the virtual object that Volume Manager uses to represent the structured or ordered collection of
subdisks?
A. volume
B. plex
C. vmdisk
D. disk group
Answer: B

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NO.14 When using Volume Manager, what is considered the correct definition for RAID-5?
A. Combines mirroring with striping or concatenation where the mirroring occurs below the striping or
concatenation in order to mirror each column of the stripe or each chunk of the concatenation
B. Refers to mirroring where data from one disk is duplicated on another disk to provide redundancy and
enable fast recovery.
C. Refers to simple concatenation or striping where disk space is combined sequentially from two or more
disks or striped across two or more disks. RAID-0 does NOT provide data redundancy.
D. Refers to a striped layout that includes the calculation of parity information and the striping of that
parity information across the disks.
Answer: D

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NO.15 What are three advantages of a concatenated volume layout? (Choose three.)
A. removes size restrictions
B. provides load balancing
C. better usage of space
D. simplifies administration
Answer: ACD

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NO.16 What must be performed before creating an empty concatenated volume in a new disk group?
A. encapsulate the volume and assign a disk group
B. initialize the disks and assign them to a disk group
C. create an empty subdisk in the disk group and assign the volume
D. in VEA, select Actions -> Volume -> Disk Group -> New
Answer: B

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NO.17 When using the New Volume Wizard in VEA, what are the two layout options available to create a
layered volume? (Choose two.)
A. Concatenated Mirrored
B. Striped Mirrored
C. Mirrored Striped
D. Mirrored Concatenated
Answer: AB

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NO.18 In this volume layout the mirroring occurs below the striping or concatenation in order to mirror each
column of the stripe or each chunk of the concatenation. This type of layout is called a layered volume.
What is the correct RAID level for a volume layout that combines mirroring with striping or concatenation?
A. RAID-1+0
B. RAID-0+1
C. RAID-5
D. RAID-2
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which two commands can be used to remove a mirror from a volume? (Choose two.)
A. vxassist remove mirror
B. vxdisk
C. vxremove mirror
D. vxplex
Answer: AD

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NO.20 You want to remove the datavol volume from the datadg disk group by using the command line. A file
system is currently mounted on the volume. You are sure that you do NOT need the data in the volume.
What is the appropriate sequence of steps to remove the volume and avoid system errors?
A. remove the volume by using the vxremove command (The file system will be unmounted automatically,
and the filesystem table file will be automatically updated to remove the entry for the file system.)
B. unmount the file system, then remove the volume using vxassist remove, and then manually edit the
file system tablefile to remove the entry for the file system
C. remove the volume by using the vxassist remove command (The file system will be unmounted
automatically;however, you must then manually edit the file system table file to remove the entry for the
file system.)
D. unmount the file system, then remove the volume using vxremove, and then manually edit the file
system table file to remove the entry for the file system
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 250-265
Exam Name: Symantec (Data Protection Administration for UNIX(NBU 6.5))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 170 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Media ID A00001 continues to have various errors. You are unsure if you are having problems with
this tape or a specific tape drive.
Which file can be reviewed to see when the error occured and which tape drive was being used?
A.errors
B.mediaDB
C.bpdm log
D.bpbkar log
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which NetBackup components make up IRM?
A.nbpem, nbjobd, nbgenjob
B.nbpem, nbjm, nbrb
C.nbpem, nbgenjob, nbjm
D.nbpem, nbrb, nbsl
Answer: B

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NO.3 The Inventory Robot function within the NetBackup Administration console is used to _____.
A.List ejected tapes
B.Delete bad media
C.Unfreeze frozen media
D.Update the volume configuration
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which command can be used to configure tape drives and robotic devices?
A.tpautoconfig
B.tpconfig
C.tpreq
D.tpext
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which processes are found on a NetBackup UNIX client? (Choose three.)
A.bpbkar
B.bpbrm
C.tar
D.bpcompatd
E.bpcd
Answer: ACE

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NO.6 Which statement is true about the relationship between a master server and an EMM server?
A.An EMM server supports only one master server.
B.An EMM server supports more than one master server.
C.Amaster server may use more than one EMM server.
D.Amaster server may use an EMM server one major version behind.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which information is included in the disaster recovery e-mail sent by the hot catalog backup?
A.EMM server, Backup Media, DR file name and location
B.EMM server, Recovery Media, DR file name and location
C.Media Server, Critical Backup Recovery Media, DR file name and location
D.Media Server, Catalog Recovery Media, DR file name and location
Answer: D

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NO.8 Given the following scenario about a policy with a single client:
Allow Multiple Data Streams is enabled.
ALL_LOCAL_DRIVES is specified.
Three tape drives are available in the storage unit.
Max Jobs Per Client is set to 2.
The client specified has five local file systems with no exclude list.
How many backup jobs will be active (versus queued) after the policy successfully initiates?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.5
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which log do you monitor to determine if multiplexing could improve performance?
A.bptm
B.bprd
C.nbjob
D.nbpem
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which statements are true about installing multiple media servers? (Choose two.)
A.All media server installations require a server license key.
B.All media server installations must be pushed from the master server.
C.All media server installations should be performed as root/administrator.
D.All media server installations can be pushed from a media server with the same OS.
E.All media server installations require a tape drive be configured on the system.
Answer: AC

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NO.11 What are functions of the EMM server? (Choose three.)
A.It provides a decentralized data store.
B.It provides a centralized data store.
C.It manages the allocation of resources.
D.It communicates with media servers.
E.It stores the image catalog.
Answer: BCD

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NO.12 Which servers can be added to a server group? (Choose three.)
A.Master server
B.Media server
C.EMM server
D.NDMP tape server
E.NOM server
Answer: ABD

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NO.13 Which statement is true about storage lifecycles?
A.Staged capacity managed retention is only available on disk storage units.
B.Backups are guaranteed to remain on the disk for the desired cache period.
C.Data classifications are required if backing up to tape storage units.
D.Backup types include backup, duplicate, and catalog.
Answer: A

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NO.14 As part of a hot catalog backup, which NetBackup components are backed up? (Choose three.)
A.EMM database
B.Image database
C.NOM database
D.configuration files
E.hosts file
Answer: ABD

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NO.15 After replacing a tape drive, which NetBackup command can you run to verify the operating system is
seeing the new tape drive?
A.scan -all
B.scan -os
C.tape -scan
D.tape -config
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which command is used to view NetBackup processes?
A.bpps
B.bpnos
C.bpverify
D.bpsl
Answer: A

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NO.17 You have a NetBackup installation where the master and EMM servers are two separate servers.
Which NetBackup components are found on the EMM server?
A.nbemm, nbproxy, pbx, nbrb
B.nbemm, nbjm, pbx, nbproxy
C.nbemm, pbx, nbrb, nbjm
D.nbemm, nbproxy, nbrb, nbjm
Answer: A

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NO.18 How do you ensure that your policies are backing up all volumes/file systems on all of your clients?
A.Use bp_testall
B.Use bpconfirm
C.Use check_coverage
D.Check the Backup_All option in every policy
Answer: C

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NO.19 When the master server is running NetBackup version 6.5, what is the minimum version of NetBackup
that can be running on a media server?
A.5.0 MP3
B.5.0 MP4
C.5.1
D.5.1 MP4
Answer: B

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NO.20 You are at a disaster recovery site, testing restores from your offsite duplicate tapes. To begin
performing restores, you must change the duplicate copies to be the primary copy.
Which commands can you use to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A.bprecover
B.bpchangeprimary
C.bpimage
D.bpexpdate
E.bprestore
Answer: BC

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NO.21 Which NetBackup process is responsible for reading data from the client during a backup?
A.bprd
B.bpcd
C.bpbkar32
D.bpbackup
Answer: C

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NO.22 Which processes can run on a media server? (Choose three.)
A.bpbrm
B.bpdm
C.bprd
D.bpdbm
E.bptm
Answer: ABE

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NO.23 When installing NetBackup 6.5, which documents should be reviewed before installing the
application?
(Choose three.)
A.Release Notes
B.Hardware Compatability Guide
C.Hardware Supported List
D.Operating System Compatability Guide
E.Operating System Supported List
Answer: ABD

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NO.24 In a NetBackup 6.5 environment, the image database resides _____.
A.Within the EMM database.
B.On the EMM server in binary format.
C.On the master server in binary format.
D.Within the master server's Sybase database.
Answer: C

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NO.25 What is the minimum supported client version for NetBackup 6.5?
A.3.4
B.4.5
C.4.5 FP6
D.5.x
Answer: D

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NO.26 Which statement is true about a policy that has its start window set to daily from 8:00 p.m. to 11:00
p.m.?
A.Backups will always start at 8:00 p.m.
B.Backups will never run past 11:00 p.m.
C.Backups will never start after 11:00 p.m.
D.Backups will pause at 11:00 p.m.
Answer: C

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NO.27 A tape is automatically frozen when NetBackup attempts to use it for a policy backup.
Which condition can cause this?
A.The tape is full.
B.The tape has expired.
C.The tape is already in use.
D.The tape has been used for NetBackup catalogs.
Answer: D

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NO.28 Which guidelines should be followed when conducting a NetBackup media server installation?
(Choose three.)
A.You should remove any other vendor backup software.
B.At least one tape drive should be available for backup operations.
C.All NetBackup servers should recognize and be recognized by their client systems.
D.You should make certain that you have a server of a supported hardware type running a supported
version of an OS.
E.You should remove previous versions of NetBackup in a Windows environment.
Answer: ACD

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NO.29 Which operating systems are supported as clients in NetBackup 6.5? (Choose three.)
A.Windows 2000
B.Windows NT 4.0 SP6
C.Windows 2003
D.Solaris 7
E.Solaris 9
Answer: ACE

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NO.30 Which statements are true about a media server upgrade from version 6.0 to version 6.5? (Choose
three.)
A.All clients must be on 6.5 if their media server is on 6.5.
B.The media server must be on 6.5 or 6.0 if the clients are on 5.1.
C.The media server must be on 6.5 or 6.0 if the clients are on 6.0.
D.The master server can be upgraded to 6.5 and media servers can remain at 6.0.
E.The media server can be upgraded to 6.5 and the master server can remain at 6.0.
Answer: BCD

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