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Exam Code: HP2-N42
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP TippingPoint Operational Security Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which statements are true about HP ArcSight solution architecture as a platform for
monitoring modernthreats and risks? (Select two)
A. It is augmented by services expertise and the most advanced security user community.
Protect724.
B. It captures logs, correlates events, monitors applications, checks for fraud and manager uses and
controls.
C. It includes dynamic analytics and policy deployment, as well as predictive intelligence.
D. It addresses advanced security threats at the perimeter and core of your business.
E. It measures security effectiveness across people, process, and technology
F. It accelerates time-to-value for achieving secure applications.
G. It delivers risk intelligence from application development to improve operational security.
Answer: A,E

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Reference:http://www.hpevents.co.za/performancetour/ag-what-you-cant-see.pdf(slide 18)

NO.2 How does HP Fortify Software Security Center identify and eliminate risk? (Select two.)
A. By collecting information from any device to ensure you have complete enterprise security
visibility
B. By addressing advanced security threats at the perimeter and core of your business
C. By providing dynamic analytics and policy deployment, as well as predictive intelligence
D. By removing security vulnerabilities from the software
E. By preventing the introduction of risk during application development, in house or from vendors
F. By measuring security effectiveness across people, process, and technology
Answer: D,E

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Reference:http://www.slideshare.net/lilianschaffer1 /day-3-p2-security-12068415(slide 18)

NO.3 The HP approach to security and policy enforcement includes the following goals: define once,
enforce everywhere, and provide which kind of responses in real time?
A. Local
B. Manual
C. Immediate
D. Automated
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which disruptive technology trend is relevant to ArcSight?
A. The increase in the traditional corporate perimeter
B. Complexity resulting from removing blind spots
C. The decline of security compliance
D. The increased drive to adopt new technologies
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is a benefit of a holistic approach to security?
A. Decreasing the number of new security breaches
B. Proactive risk reduction: seeing everything, providing context, and acting appropriately
C. Increasing the protection of your cloud environment
D. Firefighting to solve a problem when a breach occurs
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are Enterprise security priorities? (Select two.)
A. Hardware hardening
B. Compliance achievement
C. MTTR for security incidents
D. Firewall configuration
E. Switch management
Answer: B,C

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Reference:http://www.sap.com/germany/about/events/SAP-Forum-Public-Services2012 /pdfs/WS1_
Lemke.pdf(slide 4)

NO.7 The HP TippingPoint Network Defense System is a complete set of security solutions that does
what? (Select two.)
A. Protects business critical applications from cyber attacks
B. Measures security effectiveness across people, process, and technology
C. Captures logs, correlates events, monitors applications, checks for fraud, and manager uses and
controls
D. Addresses advanced security threats at the perimeter and core of your business
E. Delivers risk intelligence from application development to improve operational security
F. Includes dynamic analytics andscalable infrastructure, as well as predictive intelligence
Answer: D,F

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Reference:http://www.realsec.com/risk2012 /predavanja/RiSK%202012,%20HP%20ES,%20Advancin
g%20the%20en terprise%20beyond%20tactical%20security.pdf(slide 21)

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Exam Code: HP3-X12
Exam Name: HP (HP Retail Point of Sales Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 20 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 How do you awaken an HP ap5000 AiO POS System from a low power (sleep) state? (Select
Two.)
A. Press any keyboard key
B. Move the mouse-E1
C. Press the power button.
D. Touch the touchscreen.
E. Press Ctrl/S.
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 Which POS peripherals are supported by Windows native operating system drivers without
the need for additional drivers? (Select two.)
A. HP Pole Display
B. HP Standard Weight Scale
C. HP Laser Barcode Scanner
D. HP Thermal Receipt Printer
E. HP USB Magnetic Stripe Reader
Answer: D,E

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NO.3 Which HP POS peripheral is available for the ap5000 AiO POS System only?
A. HP POS Keyboard with MSR
B. 10.4 inch customer-facing display
C. HP USB Thermal Receipt Printer (single station)
D. Two-line display (Vacuum Fluorescent Display)
Answer: D

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Reference:ftp://ftp.moteselectronics.com/HP/All%20In%20One%20PC/AP5000%20(POS%20Syst
em)/hp%20ap5000.pdf(page 1, see second bullet)

NO.4 The HP RPOS 50C Thermal Kit supports 65 watt processors only. Which statements are also
true if this option is installed in an HP rp5800 Retail System1? (Select two.)
A. Low-profile expansion cards only can be installed in the system.
B. The serial ports cannot operate in powered mode.
C. A secondary hard drive cannot be installed in the system.
D. An internal optical drive cannot be installed in the system.
E. Expansion cards cannot be installed in the system
Answer: D,E

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NO.5 What must a customer do to use the COM ports for a powered device on a standard
(noncustomized) HP rp5700 POS System?
A. Set the jumpers on the system board for powered operation.
B. Plug a powered device into the COM port which auto senses the voltage.
C. Configure the powered device to draw power through the COM port.
D. Request a service call for the powered configuration service (GH655AV).
Answer: A

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Reference:http://h18000.www1.hp.com/products/quickspecs/12703_na/12703_na.PDF(see the
paragraph on page 17)

NO.6 A customer says that the red power LED on their HP rp5800 Retail System is blinking
sequentially three times and the system will not boot. Where are the best resources to locate
instructions on interpreting and resolving this condition? (Select two)
A. HP IT Resource Center
B. HP Business Support Page
C. HP Channel Service Network
D. HP Customer Support Portal
E. HP Partner Services Media Library
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 What is the easiest way for a customer to reprogram the keys on an HP USB POS Keyboard?
A. Locate the instructions on the HP website
B. Refer to the printed instructions in the User Guide
C. Use HP Designer on the HP POS Peripherals Software CD
D. Use the online help that is furnished with the keyboard
Answer: C

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Reference:http://h20000.www2.hp.com/bizsupport/TechSupport/Document.jsp?lang=en&cc=us&t
a skId=120&prodSeriesId=3375926&prodTypeId=12454&objectID=c01686874

NO.8 Which setup utility menu would you use to configure the SATA settings for an HP ap5000 AiO
POS System?
A. Power menu
B. Security menu
C. Advanced menu
D. Storage menu
Answer: C

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Reference:ftp://ftp.moteselectronics.com/HP/All%20In%20One%20PC/AP5000%20(POS%20Syst
em)/hp%20ap5000.pdf(page 9, SATA configuration)

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Exam Code: HH0-210
Exam Name: Hitachi (HDS Certified Implmenter-Enterprise)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which two steps must be taken when performing a microcode exchange on a Hitachi Universal
Storage Platform VM? (Choose two.)
A.Disconnect the SVP from the customer LAN.
B.Confirm that all components are at the correct starting code level.
C.Update SVP microcode last.
D.Resolve all SIMS before beginning a microcode exchange.
ANSWER: BD

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NO.2 When is a microcode exchange process complete on a Hitachi Universal Storage Platform V?
A.When the message "An exchange of a microprogram finished" is displayed.
B.When all I/O resumes across all the mapped storage paths.
C.Once the SVP has rebooted.
D.When all the microprocessors flash memory update is complete.
ANSWER: D

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NO.3 What information is displayed on the Information tab page of Storage Navigator? (Choose two.)
A.the device view of the connected system
B.the product name of the connected system
C.the information for the root user of the connected device
D.the microcode version of the storage system
ANSWER: BD

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NO.4 What is the purpose of the System Assurance Document?
A.to ensure accurate and complete record of pre-installation data
B.to guarantee that HDS equipment is insured during transportation
C.to inform a channel partner that equipment is available for shipment
D.to validate configuration changes for customers with a premium service contract
ANSWER: A

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NO.5 You have created a Storage Device List and some User Accounts within Storage Navigator. The SVP
has since failed and must be replaced.
How can you create a backup of this information so it can be easily restored after the failed SVP is
replaced?
A.Restore the ghost image available on the SVP.
B.Use HiSat to keep track of the information in a CSV format.
C.Ask the customer engineer to copy the source files from the SVP.
D.Use the download configuration function of the Storage Navigator control panel.
ANSWER: D

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NO.6 Which two topology settings should be used when connecting a Hitachi Universal Storage Platform V
to a SAN switch? (Choose two.)
A.Public Loop
B.Private Loop
C.Point-to-Point
D.Fabric
ANSWER: CD

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NO.7 You need to enable Copy-on-Write SnapShot software on a Hitachi Universal Storage Platform VM.
Which two are required? (Choose two.)
A.remote replication license
B.ShadowImage license
C.additional cache memory
D.additional shared memory
ANSWER: BD

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NO.8 Which ShadowImage operation is permitted when using Storage Navigator?
A.Manage pairs and manage consistency groups
B.Manage pairs but not manage consistency groups
C.Manage pairs only within consistency groups
D.Manage pairs in journal groups
ANSWER: B

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NO.9 You are enabling the Syslog transfer in Storage Navigator to send the Syslog output to the primary
Syslog server.
Which two additional settings must be made to allow the transfer? (Choose two.)
A.the primary server subnet settings
B.the IP address of the primary server
C.the Syslog file format
D.the port number for the primary server
ANSWER: BD

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NO.10 Which three statements describe the Service Processor (SVP) of the Hitachi Universal Storage
Platform VM? (Choose three.)
A.The SVP does have a display and keyboard.
B.The SVP has access to user data stored on the system.
C.Connecting the SVP with a service center enables remote maintenance of the system.
D.The SVP collects performance data for all key components of the system.
E.The SVP enables the service representative to configure, maintain and upgrade the system.
ANSWER: CDE

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NO.11 You are connecting a Hitachi AMS2000 Family (AMS) system as external storage behind a Hitachi
Universal Storage Platform V. You are using one path to each controller on the AMS2000 system.
Which statement describes how to complete the configuration?
A.Enable intermittent error monitoring for both paths.
B.Set path mode to "Multi".
C.No special setting is needed.
D.Set the primary path to point to the AMS default controller.
ANSWER: C

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NO.12 You install a temporary license for a specific feature.
How long is the feature available on a Hitachi Enterprise storage system?
A.45 days
B.90 days
C.120 days
D.180 days
ANSWER: C

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NO.13 Which three microcode exchange procedure modes are available in a Hitachi Enterprise storage
system? (Choose three.)
A.Alternate SCSI path
B.Non-Stop SCSI host
C.Postponed SCSI path
D.Skip SCSI microprocessor
E.Skip SCSI channel adapter
ANSWER: ABE

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NO.14 After completing a Hitachi Universal Storage Platform V installation or before upgrading the microcode,
which tool must you use to ensure that the SVP can communicate with all components of the system?
A.ping
B.traceroute
C.a network sniffer
D.diags LAN TEST
ANSWER: D

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NO.15 A customer is using a Hitachi Enterprise storage system with clustered servers in an active/passive
relationship.
What must be done in Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager (HDLM) to ensure that the status of inactive paths
on both passive and active nodes is monitored regularly?
A.Switch on Auto failback.
B.Setup intermittent Error Monitoring.
C.Switch on Path Health Check.
D.Set the reservation level to 2.
ANSWER: C

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NO.16 Which two activities can be performed without interrupting user access to data in a Hitachi Enterprise
storage system? (Choose two.)
A.Upgrade Cache Memory from 32GB to 64GB.
B.Run the CUDG4 (Control Unit DiaGnosis) test.
C.Change the DKC system emulation type.
D.Change a 2Gbps Fibre Channel feature to a 4Gbps Fibre Channel feature.
ANSWER: AD

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NO.17 To which two LANs must the SVP of a Hitachi Universal Storage Platform V be attached? (Choose two.)
A.customer's intranet
B.USP V internal LAN
C.HiTrack dedicated user port
D.secure management LAN
ANSWER: BD

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NO.18 A TrueCopy project has the following requirements: Copy from site_A (Host_A) to site_B (Host_B).
You have defined two instances (horcm0.conf and horcm1.conf) for the application and one Command
Device (CMD_A on site_A and CMD_B on site_B.)
What are two valid combinations of distributing the instances and defining access to the Command
Devices on the different sites? (Choose two.)
A.Host_A has access to CMD_A and CMD_B and runs horcm0.conf and horcm1.conf.
B.Host_A has access to CMD_A and runs horcm0.conf. Host_B has access to CMD_A and runs
horcm1.conf.
C.Host_A has access to CMD_A and runs horcm0.conf. Host_B has access to CMD_B and runs
horcm1.conf.
D.Host_A has access to CMD_B and runs horcm0.conf. Host_B has access to CMD_B and runs
horcm1.conf.
ANSWER: AC

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NO.19 Which three factors must be considered when planning a Non-stop SCSI microcode exchange on a
Universal Storage Platform V? (Choose three.)
A.Force production host data paths to failover to the alternate cluster.
B.Schedule a time when the I/O workload is low.
C.Confirm that all LUNs, external storage, and remote replication links have multiple paths across both
clusters.
D.Save the contents of the shared memory to the SVP hard disk.
E.Ensure that the microprocessors are less than 50 percent busy.
ANSWER: BCE

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NO.20 You are installing a new Hitachi Universal Storage Platform V system and need to exchange the short
wave SFP transceivers with the long wave type.
To perform the exchange, which two actions are required? (Choose two.)
A.Confirm successful replacement by checking that SFP indicators have changed from blue to green on
the Storage Navigator main screen.
B.Run the SFP exchange wizard.
C.Set SFP mode on the SVP.
D.Confirm successful replacement by checking 'SFP kind' information on the maintenance screen.
ANSWER: CD

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Exam Code: HH0-280
Exam Name: Hitachi (HDS Implemetation Specialist - Storage Management)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 A customer is planning a Hitachi Tiered Storage Manager (HTSM) solution.
What are two prerequisites for installing HTSM? (Choose two.)
A. Hitachi 9980v
B. Hitachi USP V
C. Hitachi Tuning Manager
D. Hitachi Device Manager
Answer: BD

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NO.2 In Hitachi Storage Services Manager (HSSM), which two steps are required when discovering a host?
(Choose two.)
A. Provide the administrator password.
B. Provide the IP address of the host to be discovered.
C. Install the appropriate CIM extension on the server you want to manage.
D. Click the Set Default User name and Password link and provide up to three user names and
passwords.
Answer: BC

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NO.3 A customer has an IBM storage array and is planning to use it as External Storage on the USP V to
migrate an application LUN from external to internal.
Would this migration be disruptive for the application?
A. No, because the customer is using Tiered Storage Manager.
B. No, because the customer has a ShadowImage copy of the LUN.
C. Yes, because the server has to perform a reboot to see the LUN.
D. Yes, because the application must reconfigure the LUN presented by the USP V.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Your 5 TB Hitachi Dynamic Provisioning (HDP) Pool contains one hundred 50 GB LDEVs and is
running out of space.
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. You create a new Pool and concatenate it with the existing Pool.
B. You create new LDEVs out of free space which are used as HDP Pool Volumes to expand your HDP
Pool.
C. You install a new RAID group and create HDP Pool Volumes in this RAID group and add these to your
HDP Pool.
D. You create a new Pool which meets the space requirements and you migrate the Virtual Volumes into
this newly created Pool.
Answer: BC

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NO.5 A customer wants to use Hitachi Dynamic Provisioning (HDP) on a USP V.
Which two statements are true regarding the mapping of Dynamic Provisioning (DP)-Volumes to the
application? (Choose two.)
A. Any LDEV can be used as a DP-Pool Volume.
B. Any type of RAID group is available for DP-Pool Volumes.
C. The size of a DP-Pool is limited by the size of the DP-Pool LDEVs (max 1 TB).
D. The size of a DP-Pool is limited by the number of the DP-Pool LDEVs (max 256).
Answer: BD

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NO.6 A customer is currently using Hitachi Device Manager (HDvM) server with a NIC plugged into a public
LAN. This server also has another NIC attached to a private LAN where the Enterprise and Modular
storage systems under management are located. The server has currently IP forwarding enabled to route
physical view launching by Web clients.
Which proposal will provide a more secure configuration and still allow physical view usage from Web
clients on the public LAN?
A. Add a firewall between the HDvM server and the private LAN; disable IP forwarding.
B. Add a firewall between the HDvM server and the public LAN; disable IP forwarding.
C. Add a firewall between the private and public LANs; remove the private LAN connection from the
HDvM server.
D. Add a firewall between the private and public LANs; remove the public LAN connection from the HDvM
server.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two operating systems running on the Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager (HDLM) hosts are
supported by Hitachi Global Link Availability Manager (HGLAM)? (Choose two.)
A. IBM AIX 5.3
B. IBM z/OS 1.6
C. Sun Solaris 8
D. Windows NT 4.0
Answer: AC

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NO.8 You have re-installed an existing copy of Hitachi Storage Services Manager (HSSM) on a new server.
The HSSM login screen displays a different Unique Client ID (UCID) to the original and is asking for a
license key.
Which statement is correct?
A. The key is already provided on the installation CD.
B. The key is automatically e-mailed following a successful installation.
C. The previous license key will continue to work for up to 120 days from initial installation.
D. HDS product management must be notified of the new UCID so a new key can be created.
Answer: D

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NO.9 You are installing Hitachi Device Manager for Windows on a network where resources that are to be
managed by the management server are inside a firewall.
What is required for these objects to communicate with the management server?
A. Use the setup utility to add ports to the firewall exceptions list.
B. Configure the firewall to allow these objects to communicate through each port with the management
server.
C. Configure the firewall to allow these objects to communicate through each port with the management
server. Use the setup utility to add ports to the firewall exceptions list.
D. Add the IP addresses of the managed host to the jpchostfile and to the jpchostfile of the Device
Manager Server. Use the setup utility to add ports to the firewall exceptions list.
Answer: B

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NO.10 You support a customer that will be implementing a Hitachi Device Manager (HDvM) solution. They
plan on using HDvM to manage several USP600s and Adaptable Modular Storage (AMS) systems.
Which statement is correct to manage the AMS systems with HDvM?
A. Storage Navigator is required to use the Physical View.
B. Mapping Guard is required to set up security for the LUNs.
C. Storage Navigator Modular Link and Launch must be set up.
D. Disklock is required to use a lock system for devices accessed from HDvM.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Your customer currently has Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager (HDLM) version 4.7 running on ten of their
production servers. They want to simplify the management of running those HDLM instances.
What are two prerequisites for the hosts that are running HDLM to be managed by Hitachi Global Link
Availability Manager (HGLAM)? (Choose two.)
A. Upgrade the HDLM instances to version 5.7 or higher.
B. Install Provisioning Manager agent 3.5 or later on the hosts running HDLM 4.7.
C. Install Hitachi Device Manager agent 3.5 or later on the hosts running HDLM 4.7.
D. Install Hitachi Device Manager agent 3.5 or higher after the upgrade to HDLM 5.2.
Answer: AD

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NO.12 A Hitachi Storage Services Manager (HSSM) customer has switches, hosts, and storage. They want to
reduce their Get all Element Details (GAED) times.
Which recommendation should you make?
A. Use segmented replication.
B. Put everything in one discovery group.
C. Use the GAED wizard to reduce the time of each element.
D. Increase the memory of the server to reflect the number of discovery groups.
Answer: A

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NO.13 In a new installation of Hitachi Storage Services Manager (HSSM) which command is used to install
the Oracle Patch?
A. "orapatch.sql"
B. "orapatch.exe"
C. "installPatch.cmd"
D. "patchupgrade -P -O d:\"
Answer: C

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NO.14 A customer is deploying a new USP V into the data center across various servers and operating
systems. During the planning stage you identify Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager (HDLM) 5.8 as the
preferred path management software on the AIX servers.
Which three must you include in a prerequisite check list for the deployment? (Choose three.)
A. Check that Hitachi Device Manager (HDvM) agent is not installed.
B. Include additional planning for any Virtual I/O (VIO) servers.
C. Check that the Object Data Manager (ODM) update is installed.
D. Check that Hitachi Device Manager (HDvM) is compatible with HDLM.
E. Check the operating system levels and fix packs against the release notes.
Answer: BCE

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NO.15 A customer has Hitachi USP V, Hitachi AMS, EMC DMX, and HP EVA storage systems attached to
twenty Windows servers and ten Solaris servers.
In this scenario, which two Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager (HDLM) configurations are supported?
(Choose two.)
A. HDLM for UNIX for all storage systems
B. HDLM for Windows for all storage systems
C. HDLM for UNIX for Hitachi storage systems only
D. HDLM for Windows for Hitachi storage systems only
Answer: BC

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NO.16 You have a customer that is running Hitachi Device Manager (HDvM) to manage their 9900Vs, USPs,
and Adaptable Modular Storage (AMS) systems. Your customer wants to change the port number used by
all of the AMS systems for TCP/IP communications.
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The port number for the AMS systems cannot be changed.
B. You must use Storage Navigator Modular to change the port setting in the AMS system.
C. You set the new port number in the Services file for the machine where HDvM server is installed.
D. You set the new port number in the Server.Properties file for the machine where HDvM is installed.
Answer: BC

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NO.17 In a Solaris installation of Hitachi Tiered Storage Manager (HTSM), which command would you use to
start and stop HTSM from the command line?
A. "hcmdtsm /start", "hcmdtsm /stop"
B. "htsmssrv /start", "htsmssrv /stop"
C. "htsmserver start", "htsmserver stop"
D. "hcmdssrv /start /type TieredStorageManager", "hcmdssrv /stop /type TieredStorageManager"
Answer: C

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NO.18 A new Hitachi Storage Services Manager (HSSM) customer has provided the following server
specifications to manage 1500 MAPs. Their current configuration is shown below:
-- single 3.0 GHz CPU
-- 2 GB RAM
-- 50 GB hard drive
-- Windows Server 2000 SP1
Which statement is true?
A. Proceed with the installation.
B. Server does not meet the minimum specification.
C. Proceed with the installation using the lite option switches.
D. Split the installation over two servers of the same specification.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Your customer is using Hitachi Device Manager (HDvM) to manage their storage systems. They also
want to provision storage with Hitachi Provisioning Manager.
To allow provisioning of storage, which two tasks must be performed? (Choose two.)
A. Install HDvM agent.
B. Install Provisioning Manager.
C. Install CIM agent extensions.
D. First allocate the host to a Resource group.
Answer: AB

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NO.20 A customer has five hosts available to install the Hitachi Device Manager (HDvM) server; a Solaris
server with 512 MB of RAM; a Linux server with 1 GB of RAM; a AIX server with 4 GB RAM; and an
active/passive Windows cluster running Hitachi Storage Services Manager (HSSM) (each node has 4 GB
RAM).
On which server can HDvM be installed?
A. AIX
B. Linux
C. Solaris
D. Windows
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HH0-130
Exam Name: Hitachi (Hitachi Data Systems Storage Fondations)
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Total Q&A: 115 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 A company has purchased a HUS VM storage system and they want to connect it to their
existing
AIX and Windows servers. Which HUS VM feature will allow these hosts to co-exist on the same
CHB ports?
A. Port Aggregation
B. Shared Memory Paths
C. High Speed Port Mode
D. Host Group
Answer: D

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NO.2 Your customer has purchased Hitachi Tiered Storage Manager (HTSM) to support their Service
Level Agreement targets. HTSM will be used to migrate data between their VSP and HUS
systems. Which type of migration will be performed?
A. non-disruptive volume migration based on conditions
B. dynamic file migration based on conditions
C. non-disruptive file level migration based on conditions
D. dynamic "page" level migration based on I/O load
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer would like to deploy a new HUS system with Hitachi Dynamic Provisioning (HDP).
They would like to control the amount of over provisioning from their HDP Pools by not allowing
more DP-Vols to be created beyond a certain percentage. Which over-provisioning threshold can
an administrator configure to achieve this?
A. Early Alert
B. Warning
C. Limit
D. Depletion Alert
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which three actions can be performed with Storage Navigator 2 on a VSP? (Choose three.)
A. Define migration policies.
B. Provision the storage system.
C. View system alerts.
D. Acquire logs.
E. Set System Option Modes.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 Which protocol does the HUS VM back-end architecture use?
A. SATA
B. SAS
C. FC
D. IP
Answer: B

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NO.6 A HUS VM customer requires a tool set to gather and report on application service level
objectives
and storage performance. Which package should the customer use?
A. HUS VM Virtual Partition Manager Package
B. HUS VM Analytics Package
C. HUS VM Mobility Package
D. HUS VM Local Protection Package
Answer: B

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NO.7 What are two advantages of TrueCopy Extended Distance replication? (Choose two.)
A. It has no data loss.
B. It provides extended de-duplication.
C. It provides write order integrity.
D. It provides consistency group support.
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 Your customer wants to connect a HUS system to a VSP as external storage. What are two valid
options to connect both storage systems? (Choose two.)
A. direct connection
B. FC SAN connection
C. connection using iSCSI
D. connection using FCoE
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 What are two components of a storage cluster in a VSP? (Choose two.)
A. Front-End Directors (FED)
B. Fiber Switches (FSW)
C. Virtual Storage Directors (VSD)
D. Service Processors (SVP)
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 What are two valid Hitachi Data Ingestor (HDI) configuration options? (Choose two.)
A. as a single node
B. as a n+1 cluster
C. as a VMware appliance
D. as a Hyper-V appliance
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: GB0-363
Exam Name: H3C (Designing Enterprise-level Networks)
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Total Q&A: 317 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 RSTP STP MSTP
T. True
F. False
Answer: T

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NO.2 A. 1) 2)
B. 1) 2) 3)
C. 2)
4)
D. 1) 2) 3) 4)
Answer: D

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3. OSPF Silent MD5
T. True
F. False
Answer: F

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4. IGMP Snooping
A.
B. IGMP Snooping
C. IGMP Snooping
D. IGMP Spoofing IGMP Snooping
Answer: A

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NO.3 A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: B

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NO.4 OSPF P2P PPP OSPF
T. True
F. False
Answer: T

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NO.5 A.
B. QoS
C.
D.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: ABCD

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NO.7 A.
B.
C.
D. QoS
Answer: C

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NO.8 A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: BC

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NO.9 OSPF RIP
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Answer: DE

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NO.10 STP RSTP
A. disabled
B. blocking
C. listening
D. learning
E. forwarding
Answer: DE

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NO.11 QoS
A. QoS
B. QoS
C. QoS
D. QoS
Answer: BC

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NO.12 LAN WAN
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: D

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NO.13 1)
2)

NO.14 A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: ABCD

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NO.15 A. RIPng RIP RIP
B. OSPFv3 OSPF IPv6
C. MBGP IPv6 EGP
D. IS-IS IPv6
Answer: C

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NO.16

NO.17 A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: ABCD

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NO.18 Firewall IDS Intrusion Detection System
IPS IDS Firewall IPS
T. True
F. False
Answer: F

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NO.19 A.
B.
IP
C. IP
D.
Answer: C

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NO.20 NAT GRE NAT
T. True
F. False
Answer: F

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NO.21 A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: BC

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NO.22 A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: ABC

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NO.23 A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: ABD

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NO.24 VPN
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Answer: ABCD

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NO.25 IPv6
A. ISP , IPv6 Internet
B. IPv6 IPv4
C. ISP IPv6 , 6to4 IPv6 Internet
D. ISP 6PE 6PE IPv6 Internet
Answer: AC

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NO.26 PC ADSL
A. IPoA
B. IPoEoA
C. PPPoA
D. PPPoEoA
Answer: D

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NO.27 PIM-SM RP
T. True
F. False
Answer: F

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NO.28 QoS
A.
B.
C.
D. RED WRED TCP
Answer: AD

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NO.29 BGP
A.
B.
C.
D. AS-Path
Answer: C

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NO.30 A. PPP MP N
B. dial-watch ping
C. --802.3ad N
D. RPR
Answer: AD

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Exam Code: GE0-703
Exam Name: Genesys (GCP7 - Consultant, Voice Enterprise Edition)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 108 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which GVP software component is used to configure the various components of GVP including
application provisioning?
A. Element Management Provisioning System
B. IP Call Manager
C. Voice Application Reporter
D. Genesys Studio
Answer: A

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NO.2 The <Application_Name>.xml files provides all of the __________.
A. VCS configuration information
B. voice application information
C. IPCS configuration information
D. web server configuration information
Answer: B

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NO.3 In a Behind the Switch configuration, the VCS carries out instructions from __________.
A. IVR Server only, in the form of IVR ServerXML
B. T-Server only, in the form of TLib Events
C. Web Server, in the form of VoiceXML
D. IVR Server client, in the form of XML
Answer: C

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NO.4 A Primary Voice Application URL is required when provisioning the IVR Profile. The Primary Voice
Application CANNOT include __________.
A. the fully qualified name of the web server that hosts the application
B. the numeric IP address of the web server that hosts the application
C. the name of the first page of the voice application
D. the path to the <Application Name>.XML file
Answer: D

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NO.5 Where is the default location of the DNIS Application Mapping Files?
A. <install dir>\CN\data
B. <install dir>\CN\web\dispenser\spd_data
C. <install dir>\CN\config
D. http://EMPS:9810/spm
Answer: B

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NO.6 To bring up the 9810 listener window in EMPS you need to expand Server, CORE, click on
<ServerName> and then follow which links?
A. Right-click on the Server and view
B. Click link for Network Management GUI to open the 9810 listener
C. Click the link for Server Explorer to open the 9810 listener
D. There are no available links for the 9810 listener window in the EMPS.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A logical group of ports is referred to as a __________.
A. Telephony Manager
B. Route
C. Page Collector
D. MRCP Client
Answer: B

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NO.8 The DNIS.xml provides __________.
A. the Primary Application URL
B. all application configuration information but no process information
C. the address of the IVR Server
D. the URL path to the <Application_Name>.XML
Answer: D

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NO.9 The Internet Protocol Communication Server (IPCS) processes __________ calls.
A. SIP
B. HTML
C. TDM
D. EMPS
Answer: A

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NO.10 Under what circumstances is a username and password required to access the EMPS?
A. Never. By default, a username and password is not required since EMPS is only used for monitoring
purposes.
B. Always. When opening EMPS Login screen, the system will require users enter their username and
password.
C. Only when the EMPS is being accessed from a remote workstation. You are automatically
authenticated and can log in from a local machine.
D. Only when using SunOne Directory Server because OpenLDAP has no built-in security for the EMPS
login screen.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which version of the VoiceXML Specification does GVP version 7.5 support?
A. VoiceXML 1.0
B. VoiceXML 1.1
C. VoiceXML 2.0
D. VoiceXML 3.0
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following are Windows prerequisites for VCS?
A. there are no Windows prerequisites
B. Active Directory
C. IIS and SNMP
D. SQL Server
Answer: C

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NO.13 In the <Application_Name>.xml file, the IVRTimeout value determines __________.
A. how long URS waits for the response from web server before timing out and trying default routing
target.
B. how long VCS/IPCS waits for the response from web server before timing out and attempting to reach
the Backup IVR URL.
C. how long GQA waits for the connection with the IVR Server before using the Backup IVR URL.
D. how long VCS/IPCS waits for the response from web server before timing out and attempting to reach
the Primary IVR URL.
Answer: B

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NO.14 When would you use the Import Server Instance CSV feature in EMPS?
A. Never. This feature is not available through the EMPS
B. Any time you want to make a change to any of the parameters in EMPS
C. You want to start the Watchdog service
D. When numerous changes are needed with servers or configuration of various components for a
server and in conjunction with Genesys Technical Support
Answer: D

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NO.15 How are VoiceXML pages produced during a GVP call session?
A. Web application server generates VoiceXML when processing asp or jsp pages
B. VCS or IPCS produce VoiceXML when the call is initiated
C. EMPS produces VoiceXML when the request comes in
D. IPCS creates the VoiceXML when it relays SIP messages
Answer: A

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NO.16 For most deployments with VCS configured in Behind-the-Switch mode using Genesys Framework,
DNIS is obtained through what mechanism?
A. VCS request to the T-Server via IVR Server
B. VCS requests to the Dialogic telephony board
C. a route point corresponding to the appropriate strategy
D. VCS request directly to the ACD/PBX
Answer: A

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NO.17 When the parameter localconfig is set equal to 1 (localconfig = 1) in GVP.ini, the WatchDog service
will __________.
A. not read the local GVP.ini file, using the latest configuration contained in the LDAP database for the
VCS/IPCS parameter settings
B. read the local GVP.ini file for the VCS/IPCS parameters, not using use the latest configuration
contained in the LDAP database.
C. read the local watchdog.ini file for the VCS/IPCS parameters, not using use the latest configuration
contained in the LDAP database.
D. read the local EMPS.ini file for the VCS/IPCS parameters, not using use the latest configuration
contained in the LDAP database.
Answer: B

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NO.18 The GVP VoiceXML application logic resides on __________.
A. a web server
B. the VCS
C. the VPM
D. the IPCM
Answer: A

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NO.19 The process on the VCS/IPCS that starts the other component processes is the __________.
A. Page Collector
B. IVR Server Client
C. Call Flow Assistant
D. WatchDog
Answer: D

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NO.20 The Internet Protocol Communication Server (IPCS) processes __________ calls.
A. SIP
B. HTML
C. TDM
D. EMPS
Answer: A

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NO.21 The Voice Communication Server (VCS) processes __________ calls.
A. VoIP
B. IPCS
C. Web-based GUI
D. TDM
Answer: D

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NO.22 Which VCS/IPCS component controls the TDM telephony or IP Telephony interfaces?
A. PopGateway
B. Page Collector
C. MRCP Client
D. Net Management
Answer: A

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NO.23 When you make a change to a parameter, such as PopGateway, Route1, Route Type - from InBound
to OutBound, what needs to happen for this change to go into effect?
A. restart WatchDog
B. no need to restart anything. New parameter value goes into effect immediately
C. restart the EMPS
D. restart MRCP Server
Answer: A

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NO.24 After WatchDog is started, GVP.ini file contains __________.
A. no configuration information for VCS/IPCS processes
B. application specific configuration information such as DNIS
C. the configuration information for VCS/IPCS processes, such as default log levels
D. only Dialogic configuration information
Answer: C

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NO.25 Which GVP application is used to build and test voice applications?
A. Element Management Provisioning System
B. IP Call Manager
C. Voice Application Reporter
D. Genesys Studio
Answer: D

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NO.26 In an In-Front of the Switch configuration using Genesys Framework, __________.
A. the VCS receives all call routing information from the strategy
B. the DNIS must be delivered to the VCS with the call
C. a connection with the IVR Server is required
D. ANI is required to initiate or begin the call.
Answer: B

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NO.27 The ability to record the caller's speech for application analysis is configured in an IVR Profile within
the EMPS and is referred to as __________.
A. OA&M
B. EMS Runtime
C. Enable ASR Transcoding
D. Enable ASR Logging
Answer: D

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NO.28 Which of the following features can be changed using the Element Management System (EMS) GUI
when monitoring a VCS?
A. the log level for each process
B. the default directory for logging
C. the Behind or In-Front configuration for that particular VCS
D. the speech recognition vendor for that particular VCS
Answer: A

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NO.29 The <DNIS>.XML and <Application_Name>.xml files are generated when __________.
A. a call arrives at the VCS
B. an application is created and configured in EMPS
C. the WatchDog on the EMPS is restarted
D. requested by the IVR Server
Answer: B

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NO.30 Refer to the CTI Property tab in the Provisioning IVR profile section in the EMPS. The Default Route
Number is used when __________.
A. IVR Server is unable to contact the Solution Control Interface (SCI)
B. IVR Server is unable to contact the Universal Routing Server (URS), or when the URS is unable to
find an agent number to which it can route the call
C. IVR component, specifically Genesys Queue Adapter (GQA), cannot communicate with SCS.
D. IVR Server component cannot communicate with the Web Server
Answer: B

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Exam Name: Extreme Networks (Extreme networks associate(ena))
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Total Q&A: 240 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which of the following CLI commands would you use to enable ECMP for RIP?
A. enable rip route sharing
B. enable route sharing rip
C. enable iproute sharing
D. None of these, ecmp is not supported by RIP
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which CLI command will you use to change the CLI prompt from the default display to Switch02?
A. CONFIG SNMP SYSLOCATION Switch02
B. CONFIG SNMP SYSNAME Switch02
C. CONFIG CLI PROMPT Switch02
D. CONFIG CLI DISPLAY Switch02
Answer: B

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NO.3 An Extreme Switch is shipped with a pre-configured VLAN called DEFAULT that has all switch ports as
tagged members.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following protocol filter/s is/are predefined in ExtremeWare?
A. OSPF
B. TCP
C. NETBIOS
D. All of these
Answer: C

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NO.5 If you wish to silently drop all traffic destined for IP network 100.219.10.0/24 with a gateway of
10.219.10.1/24 and without receiving any ICMP messages that would otherwise be generated, which CLI
command would you execute?
A. configure iproute delete 100.219.10.0/24 gateway 10.219.10.1
B. configure iproute default 100.219.10.0/24
C. configure iproute add blackhole 100.219.10.0/24 gateway 10.219.10.1
D. configure iproute add blackhole 100.219.10.0/24
Answer: D

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NO.6 Given the following information, select the option that would allow you to change the active
ExtremeWare version to 6.1.9b11 upon reboot.
A. use image primary
B. download config primary
C. use config primary
D. download image primary
Answer:A

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NO.7 Which CLI command would you use to configure the switch to ignore STP for selected VLANs?
A. enable ignore-stp vlan <stpd>
B. enable ignore-bpdu stpd <stpd> vlan <vlan>
C. enable ignore-bpdu stpd <stpd>
D. enable ignore-stp vlan <vlan>
Answer: D

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NO.8 The CLI console port utilizes a serial cable for physical switch to terminal connection.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer:A

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NO.9 What CLI command is used to disable learning of incoming RIP routes on an interface?
A. disable rip learning <VLAN>
B. configure rip rxmode none <VLAN>
C. configure rip interface <VLAN> passive
D. None of these
Answer: B

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NO.10 In spanning tree, the designated bridge is the bridge with the:
A. least-cost path to the root bridge
B. highest bridge priority
C. lowest port cost on all ports
D. None of these
Answer:A

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NO.11 Which CLI command would you use to create a default route with a metric of 5 and a gateway of
10.0.0.1?
A. CONFIG IPROUTE ADD DEFAULT 10.0.0.1 5
B. CONFIG IPROUTE ADD DEFAULT 5 10.0.0.1
C. CREATE IPROUTE ADD DEFAULT 10.0.0.1 5
D. CREATE IPROUTE ADD DEFAULT 5 10.0.0.1
Answer:A

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NO.12 Extreme Networks switches build their forwarding database from the incoming packet field information
containing the:
A. Source MAC address.
B. Destination MAC address.
C. Source IP address.
D. Destination IP address.
Answer:A

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NO.13 Which step would you take to configure a VLAN to only allow IP-related traffic?
A. config <vlan> protocol ip
B. config protocol <vlan> ip
C. config ip protocol <vlan>
D. None of these.
Answer:A

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NO.14 The default administrator login name for a new Extreme switch was entered as ADMIN (all caps). This
will allow the administrator access to the CLI.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

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NO.15 A 802.1Q tag is a marker inserted between the source and destination MAC addresses fields of the
Ethernet frame.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

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NO.16 In ExtremeWare, active VLANs that are configured with ports and an IP address and configured to
forward IP and run a routing protocol will have their subnet advertised.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer:A

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NO.17 Which statement is true? In a PC, the configured default gateway:
A. Is always within the PC IP (sub) network.
B. Is always outside the PC IP (sub) network.
C. Is always behind a router.
D. Can be anywhere.
Answer:A

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NO.18 How would you stop a scheduled configuration download from happening? Use the CLI command:
A. cancel configuration download
B. download configuration cancel
C. configuration download cancel
D. delete configuration download
Answer: B

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NO.19 This type of OSPF router has its router interfaces connected into multiple OSPF areas.
A. ASBR.
B. ABR.
C. DR.
D. BDR.
Answer: B

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NO.20 ExtremeWare, pre-installed on every Extreme Networks ?chipset switch, combines industry standard
protocols to ensure interoperability with legacy switches and routers, QoS for bandwidth management
and traffic prioritization in today networks.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer:A

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